Greetings
...
I am going to
emphasize on two main points made in your last posts.
I believe that these
are the two main hurdles that need to be tackled.
It appears that you
maybe inclined towards a binitarian point of view ...
because in one
breath, you agree with me that there is solely ONE GOD who has no
'co-equal' ...
yet you insist that Jesus must be deity ...
hence we
end up with 'two deities'!!
Now the point I will
attempt to make is that this viewpoint cannot be based upon the Hebrew
Bible.
That is, maybe from
a Western mindset ... this conclusion can be arrived ... maybe also from a
Gentile source ...
However, from the
Scriptures that the OT saints, the patriarchs, the prophets, Jesus of Nazareth,
the Apostles, quoted from, studied, and read ...
such a
conclusion cannot be arrived ... that is, that there are two deities,
whether co-equal or otherwise!
You see, when one
reads the Bible, one must read it with an Hebrew
mindset.
Even the New
Testament, although written in Greek, it was still written with a Hebrew
mindset, a Hebrew viewpoint.
The theology
had NOT changed. The Theology of the Old Testament was the very same in the New
Testament.
The ONE GOD had not changed. He was the GOD of Abraham, Isaac,
& Jacob; who spoke through Moses, that He was going to raise up a Prophet
like Moses from the children of Israel; therefore in the NT, GOD kept His
promise and the man Christ Jesus was conceived in the womb of Mary according to
the flesh, of the seed of David
[Acts 13.32-33, Rom 1.3];
thus the ONE GOD
was now not only the GOD of the fathers, He was also the GOD & Father of the
Lord Jesus Christ;
Jesus called
his Father,
the only true GOD [John 17.3] & the 'only' GOD [John
5.44].
The theology
was the same. There was still solely ONE GOD, ONE Deity ... who had brought into
existence, the man Messiah Jesus ...
thus ONE GOD, ONE Lord i.e. the ONE GOD and the ONE
man whom the ONE GOD had made, alone, Lord & Christ.
YAHWEH
GOD still is alone ... the only GOD ... OT Theology had not
changed!
Jesus
the Messiah, GOD's son ... is alone, Lord & Messiah [1 Cor
8.6]
Therefore, when one
reads the Bible, one must try to read it without any preconceived notions (yeah,
I know that is very difficult when one has been schooled beforehand in church)
and with the mindset that the OT saints would read it.
Norman Snaith makes
the following points concerning what we are up against when reading the Bible
from 'the orthodox mainstream
Christian' point of view ...
"Our position is
that the reinterpretation of Biblical theology in terms of
the ideas of the Greek philosophers has been widespread
throughout the centuries and everywhere destructive to the
essence of the Christian faith ... Neither Catholic nor Protestant
theology is based on Biblical theology. In each case we have a dominion of
Christian theology by Greek thought ... We hold that there can
be no right (theology) until we have come to a clear view of
the distinctive ideas of both Old and New Testaments and their
difference from the pagan ideas which have so largely
dominated "Christian" thought ..."
Snaith states that
the confusing of Greek ideas with the pure Hebrew heritage of Scripture began as
early as the 2nd century CE ...
"... it arose from
the fact that these scholars [Clement of Alexandria & Origen] were
Hellenists first and Christians second. It was furthered by the fact
that all until Jerome tended to read the Greek Bible as a Greek
book and with Hellenistic eyes. ... The result of this has been
that from a very early stage, Christianity itself has tended to suffer
from a translation out of the Prophets and into
Plato."
(The above cited from N.H. Snaith, The Distinctive Ideas
of the Old Testament, London: The Epworth Press, 1944, p.187-188,
161.)
Douglas Lockhart
goes on to say ...
"Because a Church
Council composed of people like Athanasius had said so, Jesus was no
longer the Jewish Messiah, the Suffering Servant of Isaiah, the Archetypal
man ... he was the alien Jewish God shoe-horned into a
physical body and let loose as a refurbished pagan deity of monstrous
proportions."
(Douglas Lockhart,
Jesus the Heretic: Freedom and Bondage in a Religious World,
Melbourne, Victoria: Element, p. 131)
Hmm! Strong words.
But it does sum up what has happened & what we are up
against.
However, I contend that the OT Scriptures
prophesied that the Messiah would be the Archetypal man, a human
being, supernaturally endowed by Almighty GOD, however,
nonetheless a human being, a man not deity ...
born of a human mother ... and that
the NT Scriptures verify that Jesus of Nazareth is indeed that
man! Who died, was raised from death, immortalized & exalted by the
ONE GOD of the Scriptures, and is now at GOD's right hand; being made Lord &
Christ & mediator between the ONE GOD, the ONE DEITY, and
mankind.
My point is that
Scripturally there cannot be any other deity except the ONE GOD, YAHWEH
... known in the NT as the Father ...
Deity means GOD
...
- The essential nature or condition
of being a god; divinity.
- Deity God. Used with
the.
From
Webster's Dictionary, 1913 :-
1. The collection of attributes
which make up the nature of a god; divinity; godhead; as, the deity
of the Supreme Being is seen in his works.
2. A god or goddess; a heathen
god.
Using the above
definitions
Let us, begin with
the Scriptures ...
- (Deu 4:35) Unto
thee it was showed, that thou mightest know that YAHWEH he is God;
there is none else beside him.
- (Deu 4:39) Know therefore this day, and consider
it in thine heart, that YAHWEH he is God in heaven above, and
upon the earth beneath: there is none else.
- (Deu 32:12) So YAHWEH alone did lead him, and
there was no strange god with him.
- (Deu 32:39) See now that I, even I, am
he, and there is no god with me: ...
- (1 Sam 2:2) There is none holy
as YAHWEH: for there is
none beside thee: neither is there any rock like our God.
- (1 Ki 8:60) That all the people of the earth
may know that YAHWEH is God, and that there is none else.
- (Psa 83:18) That men may know that thou,
whose name alone is YAHWEH, art the most high over all the
earth.
- (Isa 37:16) O YAHWEH of hosts, God of Israel, that
dwellest between the cherubims, thou art the God, even thou alone, ...
- (Isa 37:20) Now therefore, O YAHWEH our God, save us from his hand,
that all the kingdoms of the earth may know that thou
art YAHWEH, even
thou only.
- (Isa 43:10-12) Ye are my witnesses,
saith YAHWEH, and my servant whom I
have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I
am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after
me. 11 I, even I, am YAHWEH; and beside me there is no
saviour. 12 I have declared, and have saved, and I have showed,
when there was no strange god among you: therefore ye
are my witnesses, saith YAHWEH, that I am God.
- (Isa 44:8) ... Is there a God beside me? yea,
there is no God; I know not any.
- (Isa 44:24) Thus saith YAHWEH, thy redeemer, and
he that formed thee from the womb, I am YAHWEH that maketh all things; that
stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth
by myself;
- (Isa 45:5-6) I am YAHWEH, and there is none
else, there is no God beside me: ... 6 That they may know from the rising
of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am YAHWEH,
and there is none else.
- (Isa 45:18) For thus saith YAHWEH that created the heavens; God
himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he
created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I
am YAHWEH; and there is
none else.
- (Isa 46:9) Remember the former things of old:
for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like
me,
- (Mal 2:10) Have we not all one father? hath not
one God created us? ?
Remember, I desire
you to look at these scriptures from a Hebrew point of view. To the
Hebrews, there was solely ONE GOD, ONE deity! There was no other god,
no other deity besides YAHWEH.
Can you see my
point? The Hebrews/Jews simply had no concept of another deity besides
(or alongside) YAHWEH.
To them there was
simply ONE GOD, ONE deity, whose name alone was YAHWEH, who
alone & by Himself had created everything; who
alone was GOD in Heaven & earth; who knew no other
god/deity besides Him; who neither formed one before Him neither was to form one
after Him, etc., etc., ...
Therefore, if
we Westerners, centuries after ... have derived a concept that there is yet
another deity besides YAHWEH, whether co-equal or not, ... we
did not derive this concept from the
Scriptures.
NO! We have
derived it from as Snaith suggested, Hellenistic/pagan
sources!!
With an Hellenistic
mind, it is easy to introduce another deity & read this meaning
into the Bible; since, the Greeks had a pantheon of gods/deities i.e.
deities who incarnated, deities who came down in the likeness of men,
deities who died, deities who were resurrected, etc ...
And history shows
that this is exactly what Hellenistic-minded
philosopher-turned-christian men did; they introduced such ideas, such
concepts; turning the Logos which is simply the Greek word for 'a word,
a teaching, a statement, a thought expressed, etc' into a pre-existing
person/deity alongside the ONE GOD of the OT; the council of Nicaea
took this to the next level i.e. making this 'Jesus who is God the
Logos' into a co-equal deity with GOD the Father; and then in the process
of time, the Council of Constantinople introduced another deity, God the
Holy Spirit; and yet somehow in their Greek
minds
made all three,
one???
Again, I must
iterate, that such reasoning could not have been developed by taking the
Scriptures literally; this second deity was introduced by reading
pagan thoughts, (Neo-)Platonism and other Hellenistic-sourced concepts into
Scripture.
Now, without a doubt
the word 'god' in Hebrew, that is, the words elohim
& el; are not used solely in regards to Almighty
GOD!
These words are also
used to denote the ONE GOD's agents, the ONE GOD's representatives,
i.e. angels
[Exo 15.11, Ps. 86.8 (cp. 89.6), 97.7] and human judges [Exo 7.1,
21.6, 22.8,9,28; Psa 82] ... however these words are never used in
Scripture to denote other deities except to point out that
they are indeed false gods, false deities, idols!
Why? Because
there is in reality, no other god/deity next to YAHWEH the ONE GOD!
Thus, elohim & el; are used to sometimes
describe angelic & human beings.
And we know that
Jesus is NOT an angelic
being. [Heb 1.4-5, 13;
2.5]
Leaving one
class of being ... human.
Using Psalms 82
and the fact that the word 'god/elohim' is sometimes used to
denote the ONE GOD's agents;
Jesus informs us and his audience, in
what sense, the word 'god/elohim/theos' can be used to
denote Christ!
Psalms 82 is about
human beings, human judges, who although called gods by GOD Himself via
His unbroken word; they have not been obedient to their calling ... they have
not judged correctly with justice & equity.
Therefore, how much
more he whom the ONE GOD has sanctified and commissioned to be the Judge of the
Living & the Dead;
he whom GOD as
foreordained to be the king of GOD's Coming Kingdom, how much more is such
a man truly fitting especially after his total obedience to the
death of cross; how much more fitting for him to be conferred the title
'god' ...
being truly the ultimate
Representative of the Righteous GOD; he who is truly a righteous judge
because he judges according to GOD's righteous will ... he is
truly 'god' in the way that the men of Psalms 82
were meant to be. GOD's word cannot be broken!
This describes
therefore the 'godhood'
that Jesus indeed possesses ...
- however, in the same way that angels are
sometimes called gods and are yet NOT deity
- in
the same way that human judges are sometimes called gods and are
yet NOT deity
- in like
manner, the Messiah is at least twice called god in the NT;
however he is NOT deity;
just as Moses [Exo 4.16, 7.1] who was made
god was NOT deity;
GOD did indeed say he would raise up a Prophet
like unto Moses.
Hence, Thomas's confession of John 20.28
...
This testimony is
bracketed between
- (John 20:17) Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to
my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your
Father; and to my God, and your God. ... and ...
-
(John 20:31) But these are written, that ye might believe that
Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye
might have life through his name.
This was the reason behind John's Gospel ... to convince
the readers that Jesus of Nazareth was indeed the Messiah, GOD's Son.
Note he did not write esp. in light of v. 28 ... these
are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is
GOD!
John was a monotheistic Jew. Like Jesus (Mark 12:29) and
the rest of the GOD-fearing Jews he believed in solely ONE GOD, the ONE GOD of
the Sh'ma ... YAHWEH.
He was not writing to convince his audience that the
Messiah was indeed Deity; as later Hellenists tried to by reading these foreign
ideas into his gospel.
No! John was writing to convince his readers that Jesus of
Nazareth was the Messiah as promised in the OT writings.
(Always remember,
throughout their exegesis, the Apostles used solely the OT [the Hebrew Bible]
... the NT was not compiled yet)
Before Thomas, was the risen Jesus. GOD had indeed raised
him from the dead just like Jesus said GOD would!
Seeing the risen Messiah, Thomas therefore said ...
(John 20:28) And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my
God.
Now Jesus was indeed the Lord, the
adoni spoken of in Psalms 110.1 (remember in all of
its 195 instances including Psalms 110:1, the word adoni is never
used to denote deity ... for ref., see http://focusonthekingdom.org/articles/adonai.htm)
What of the phrase, my God?
Well we have seen what GOD did to Moses
...
(Exo 4:16) And
he [Aaron] shall be thy [Moses] spokesman unto the people: and he shall
be, even he shall be to thee a mouth, and thou shalt be to him
God.
(Exo 7:1)
And YAHWEH said unto Moses, See, I
have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be
thy prophet.
Aaron was the spokesman & prophet of
Moses; and in effect, Moses was God both to Aaron &
Pharaoh!
Moses was Aaron's God!! Of course this
is only correct in the context of the Jewish's law of agency; that is,
Moses was Almighty GOD's agent in regards to Aaron &
Pharaoh.
We have seen Jesus' usage of Psalms 82 where the judges
are called gods (both Hebrew words, el & elohim are used). The
judges being GOD's agents who were to judge in GOD's stead. Hence they are
called elohim just as the judges in Exo. 7.1, 21.6, 22.8,9,28. (Compare
2 Chr 19.5-6)
And let us not forget Psalms 45.
(Psa 45) ... My heart is inditing a good matter: I speak
of the things which I have made touching the king: my tongue
is the pen of a ready writer. 2 Thou art fairer than the children
of men: grace is poured into thy lips: therefore God hath blessed thee for
ever. 3 Gird thy sword upon thy thigh, O most mighty [Heb.
gibbor], with thy glory and thy
majesty. ...
6 Thy throne,
O God [Heb. elohim],
is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right
sceptre. 7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore
God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of
gladness above thy fellows. 8 All thy garments smell of myrrh, and
aloes, and cassia, out of the ivory palaces, whereby they have made thee
glad. 9 Kings' daughters were among thy honourable women: upon thy
right hand did stand the queen in gold of Ophir. 10 Hearken, O daughter,
and consider, and incline thine ear; forget also thine own people, and thy
father's house; 11 So shall the king greatly desire thy beauty:
for he is thy Lord [Heb.
adon]; and worship thou him. 12 And the daughter of
Tyre shall be there with a gift; even the rich among the people
shall entreat thy favour. ...
This Psalm is about a human king ... a Messianic
king ...
The Jews who read this psalm never imagined at anytime
that this psalm was speaking of a deity! NO! It is speaking of a
great, highly exalted human king. A king who is called
God/elohim by the ONE GOD, whom the ONE GOD would anoint with
an anointing above all his fellows! A king whom the ONE GOD would establish his
throne for ever
(sound familiar ... e.g. 2 Sam 7.16, Isa
9.7).
A king who would be exalted and
made 'lord' i.e. 'adon' causing the people to worship him
even as people did to the kings of Israel in times past (e.g. 1 Chr 29.20, 1 Kin
1.16, 23, 31, 53, etc. Same Hebrew word shachah used for worship
translated worship, bow down, do reverence/obeisance, etc). They ought
to show him such reverence/worship because this king is both lord [45.11] &
god [45.6]. Even the writer of Hebrews quotes this psalm when showing the
supremacy of Jesus as
the Lord Messiah denoting that he fulfils this psalm
as the Messiah, GOD's Son. [Heb. 1.8-9]
In light of Psalms 45, John 20.28 becomes a Messianic
confession. Because of his resurrection, Thomas finally believes that
Jesus of Nazareth is indeed the Messiah, GOD's Son. Hence, he is Thomas' lord
& god; just as the king spoken of in Psalms 45 is lord & god! ...
yet never meaning
deity.
There is
solely ONE DEITY, YAHWEH ... the Messiah is YAHWEH's human
son.
Part 2
concerning the word/logos to
follow.