Shalom! My name is Adam Pastor

Welcome to ADONI MESSIAH which means
"My Lord Messiah" -
a fitting epithet to who Jesus (or Yeshua) is!

Here, I attempt to present the Apostolic Truths according to the Scriptures, that there is
One GOD, the Father, namely, YAHWEH,
and One Lord, GOD's only begotten Son,
Yeshua the Messiah.

And that one day YAHWEH will send His Son back to Earth to inaugurate the Everlasting Kingdom of GOD



Enjoy!


Saturday, March 14, 2009

60 questions on the Godhead

Both, Oneness & Trinity doctrines are equally wrong. They use the same proof texts and practically the same methods of interpretation to present their common erroneous pretext:
That is, that our Lord and Savior,
Jesus the Messiah, the Son of GOD

is indeed GOD ALMIGHTY!!

In this sense then, both doctrines do equally err.

The largest Oneness organization, UPCI, have a tract that presents 60 questions concerning the Godhead, titled "60 Questions on the Godhead with Bible answers."

In this tract the oneness camp present to the trinitarian camp, 60 questions, with 60 “oneness” answers.

In this blog, I present the majority of the 60 questions with alternative answers.
And by GOD’s grace, I believe the alternative answers presented actually align with GOD’s Holy Scripture and the Truths concerning the ONE GOD and His glorious, highly exalted Son, the Lord Jesus the Messiah.

The Oneness questions are presented in brown.
The Oneness answers in green.
The alternative (and prayerfully more correct) answers and responses are in blue.

60 questions on the Godhead 

1.    Is the word trinity in the Bible? No.

 

And BTW, neither is the word ‘oneness’.

2.    Does the Bible say that there are three persons in the Godhead? No.

 

In fact, the Bible does not speak of any persons or anyone “in the Godhead.”

5.    Does the Bible use the word three in reference to God? Only one verse in the entire Bible does so - I John 5:7. It speaks of the Father, the Word (instead of Son), and the Holy Ghost, and it concludes by saying, "These three are one."

It appears that there is a great translational issue concerning 1 John 5.7.

The truth of the matter is that the Bible in fact does NOT in any sense use the word ‘three’ in reference to GOD Almighty!

6.    Does the Bible use the word one in reference to God? Yes, many times. For example, see Zechariah 14:9; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 23:9; Mark 12:29, 32; John 8:41; 10:30; Romans 3:30; I Corinthians 8:4; Galatians 3:20; I Timothy 2:5; James 2:19.

Amen!
(John 10.30 is not appropriate in this regard.)

8.    Has the Christian only one Heavenly Father? Yes. Matthew 23:9.

Amen. And consider also what Jesus said concerning the Father:

(John 20:17) ... I ascend unto my Father, and your Father;
and to my God, and your God.


It appears that Christians' Heavenly Father and GOD;
is also both the Father and GOD of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Compare: Rom 15.6, 2 Cor 11.31, Eph 1.3,17;
Col 1.3, 1 Pet 1.3.

9.    Then why did Jesus say to Philip, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father"
(John 14:9)?
Because Jesus is the express image of God's person. Hebrews 1:3. The Greek word for person in this verse literally means "substance."

Yes, Jesus is the image of the invisible GOD.

[Colossians 1.15]

However, an image is not the thing that it represents.Thus, Jesus is the image of GOD; he totally represents GOD his Father. Jesus also represents the very substance of GOD, nonetheless, Jesus is GOD’s perfect representative. He is not GOD himself!


Note in John 14.10, Jesus says I am in the Father;
not I am the Father!
Which would have been the case, if Oneness doctrine were true.

13. Who is the Father? The Father is the one God, particularly as revealed in parental relationship to humanity. Deuteronomy 32:6; Malachi 2:10.

15. Did the prophet Isaiah say that Jesus would be the Father? Yes. Isaiah 9:6; 63:16.

No!
The word 'Father' in Isa 9:6 abi-ad is being used in a different context here; the term 'father' in this verse does not mean the ONE GOD.

Compare Isa 51:2, Matt 3.9, Rom 4.16.

Also Eliakim: he shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and to the house of Judah. Isa 22.20-22.
In Isa 9.6, abi-ad means that the Messianic king will be:
the father of the age to come.

 

Another example is Joseph:
(Gen 45:8) So now it was not you that sent me hither, but God: and he hath made me a father to Pharaoh, and lord of all his house, and a ruler throughout all the land of Egypt.

 

So, just as Abraham being called 'father' doesn't make him Almighty GOD; and just as Eliakim, being called 'father' doesn't make him Almighty GOD; and just as Joseph being made 'father' to Pharaoh, doesn't make him Almighty GOD;  
the same goes for the Messiah!!

 

Besides, Jesus clearly said:
(Mat 23:9-10) And call no man your father upon the earth:
for one is your Father, which is in heaven.
10 Neither be ye called masters:
for one is your Master, even Christ.

Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and the ONE GOD, the Heavenly Father.
And above all, Jesus identified his Father as the only true GOD!
(John 17:1) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, ...
(John 17:3) And this is life eternal,
that they might know thee the only true God,
and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

 

( See also Concerning Isaiah 9:6 )

19. Does the Bible say that Jesus is the Almighty? Yes. Revelation 1:8

NO! It does not!
Don't be duped by
red-letter bibles.
Verse 8 is about the ONE GOD, the Father. Just compare verse 4:
from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; ...
Then verse 5: And from Jesus Christ, ... right through to verse 7 (ending with Amen.);
these verses are about Jesus.

So, Verse 4: is about GOD;

Verses 5-7: is about Jesus Christ;

Verse 8: is about GOD again;

Verse 9: is about John.

22. How many persons did John see sitting on the throne in heaven? One. Revelation 4:2.

The ONE he saw is the ONE GOD,
the LORD GOD ALMIGHTY
.

Whilst the Lamb is in the midst of the throne alongside the 24 elders & the 4 beasts
[Rev 5.6, 7.17].
The Lamb (we know who the Lamb is! John 1.29,36)
even takes the book out of the right hand of Him who is seated on the throne!! [Rev 5.6-7]

Solely the ONE GOD is depicted throughout the Book of Revelation as seated on the One throne; whilst the Lamb is not!

23. If Jesus is the first and the last, why did God say in Isaiah 44:6 that He was the first and the last? Because Jesus is the God of the Old Testament incarnate.

Different context.
Clue: The immortal Almighty GOD who ONLY has immortality [1 Tim 6.16] cannot die!
While Jesus the first and the last, was dead!!
[Rev 1:17-18]
Thus it ought to be obvious that the terms "the first and the last" are being used in different contexts, depending on whom it is referring to, whether GOD or Christ.

30. Does the Bible say that there is but one Lord? Yes. Isaiah 45:18; Ephesians 4:5.

31. Does the Bible say that Christ is the Lord? Yes. Luke 2:11.

32. Does the Bible say that the Lord is God? Yes. I Kings 18:39; Zechariah 14:5; Acts 2:39; Revelation 19:1.

The word 'Lord' is being used in two different contexts.

See Psalm 110.1. The word 'lord' is used twice.
Once in reference to YAHWEH GOD ALMIGHTY.
The other reference to someone who David
prophesied about and called 'my lord'.

Jesus after identifying the ONE GOD as the ONE LORD of Deut 6.4 in Mark 12:28-34;
then identifies himself as that other 'lord' referred to in Psalm 110.1.
See Mark 12:35-37.

Psa. 110.1 is the most quoted OT verse in the NT.
It defines the Lordship of Christ.
And this verse was totally fulfilled when the LORD GOD made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
[Acts 2.32-36]

For more info on Psalm 110.1
and its implications concerning Jesus' Lordship,
please see:

LORD, Lord, lord

Adonai and Adoni (Psalm 110:1)


BTW, the word "LORD" used in the verses referred to in questions:
30 (Isaiah 45:18), 32 (I Kings 18:39; Zechariah 14:5;), 39, 40;
is actually GOD's Name in the Hebrew text
(hence not the actual Hebrew word for 'lord').


That is why this word appears in capitals, "LORD" in our English OT.

And also, that is why these OT comparisons to the Lord Jesus simply do not match.
You cannot just compare two OT & NT verses which both use the word 'lord' and think that they are referring to the same being, the same 'lord'.

The OT usage of the word "LORD"
(in the example questions e.g. 30,32,39,40,etc.)
is actually GOD's name.
(Hence capitalized in our translations as "LORD" to indicate to the reader that this word is actually GOD's name in the Hebrew.)

Whilst the other usage is Jesus' title, simply the word 'Lord'.
(Also, other men in both the OT/NT are also called 'Lord'.
That doesn't make them the LORD GOD just as it doesn't make them
the Lord Christ! [Luke 2.11, Col 3.24])

Always check the context:
see
LORD, Lord, lord


So in answer to No. 30.
The Father is YAHWEH, there is none else.
Hence he is the One God and Father of all.
[Eph 4.6]

And in answer to No. 31.
In contrast, Jesus of Nazareth is the one man whom YAHWEH GOD
made both "Lord & Christ" in fulfillment of Psalm 110.1;
thus Jesus Christ is the "one Lord" [Eph 4.5]

Thus:
(1 Cor 8:4) ... that there is none other God but one.
(1 Cor 8:6) But to us there is but one God, the Father, ...
and one Lord, Jesus Christ, ...

33. How could the church belong to Jesus (Matthew 16:18) and yet be the church of God (I Corinthians 10:32)? Because Jesus is God in the flesh.

A simpler answer would be:
(John 3:35) The Father loveth the Son,
and hath given all things into his hand.

(John 6:37) All that the Father giveth me
shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

(John 16:15) All things that the Father hath are mine: ...

(John 17:2) As thou hast given him power over all flesh,
that he should give eternal life
to as many as thou hast given him.

(John 17:9-11) I pray for them: I pray not for the world,
but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
10 And all mine are thine, and thine are mine;

and I am glorified in them.
11 ... Holy Father, keep through thine own name
those whom thou hast given me,
that they may be one, as we are.

37. What is one thing that God Cannot do? Lie. Titus 1:2.

GOD ALSO CANNOT DIE.

That is what "Immortal" means! So that's two things!

(1 Tim 1:17) Now unto the King eternal,
immortal, invisible, the only wise God,
be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen.

(1 Tim 6:16) Who only hath immortality,
dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto;
whom no man hath seen, nor can see:
to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.


Yet Jesus died for us. Hence, Jesus is not the ONE GOD, but rather:
the human Son of the ONE GOD, the Father.

(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God,
and one mediator between God and men,
the man Christ Jesus;

(2 John 1:3) Grace be with you, mercy, and peace,
from God the Father,
and from the Lord Jesus Christ,
the Son of the Father, in truth and love.

41. Does the Bible say that God alone treads upon the waves of the sea? Yes. Job 9:8

42. Why, then, was Jesus able to walk upon the Sea of Galilee (Matthew 14:25)? Because He is God the Creator. Colossians 1:16.

Such reasoning would make Peter, GOD the Creator!!
Why? Because Peter walked on water:
(Mat 14:29) And he said, Come.
And when Peter was come down out of the ship,
he walked on the water
, to go to Jesus.

So ask yourself how was Peter able to walk on water?
Hint: The answer to that question will answer how Jesus was able to walk on water too!
Clue: Acts 2.22, 10.38.

43. Is God the only one who can forgive sin? Yes. Isaiah 43:25; Mark 2:7.

44. Why, then, could Jesus forgive sin in Mark 2:5-11? Because He is God the Savior.


Again, such reasoning would make Jesus' disciples,
God the Savior!

Why? Because they also forgave sins.
(John 20:23) Whose soever sins
ye remit [forgive, same Gk. word as in Mark 2.5-11!],
they are remitted [forgiven, same Gk. word as in
Mark 2.5-11!]
unto them; ...

So the question should be, how could the disciples do so?
Answer: By the authority of Jesus which was given them.
Then how did Jesus in turn forgive sins?
That right! By the authority of the ONE GOD has given to Jesus!!
Therefore:
(Mat 9:8) But when the multitude saw it, they marvelled,
and glorified God, which had given such power [AUTHORITY] unto men;
i.e. the man Jesus of Nazareth!!

The believing crowd understood this!!

See also Jesus Forgave Sins 

 

45. Is Jesus the true God? Yes. I John 5:20.

NO!!! Jesus clearly tells us who the true GOD is.
John (the same writer) isn't contradicting himself!!


(John 17:1) These words spake Jesus,
and lifted up his eyes to heaven,
and said, Father, ...
(John 17:3) And this is life eternal,
that they might know thee the only true God,
and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

48. When Stephen was dying, did he call God Jesus? Yes. Acts 7:59.

 

NO! The word 'God' is in italics in our Bibles;
to indicate that this word is not in the Greek text;
but rather was added to the English translation
by the (trinitarian) translators.


Rather the verse actually reads:
(Acts 7:59) And they stoned Stephen,
calling upon and saying,
Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.

Always remember who translated the KJV Bible!
They obviously had a bias to present Jesus as
'God the Son'!!

49. Did Thomas ever call Jesus God? Yes. John 20:28.

Yes. See also Jesus Is God

 

 

50. How could Jesus be the Savior, when God the Father said in Isaiah 43:11, "Beside me there is no Savior?" Because "God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself." II Corinthians 5:19.

Well, ask yourself:
How could the ONE GOD, raise up men in OT times to be saviors? ...
Judg. 3.9,15; Neh. 9.27 (see also Obadiah 21)
How could Othniel & Ehud be saviors in light of
Isa 43:11?

(The word "deliverer" is the same Hebrew word as "savior" in Isa 43.11)


Does that mean then that Othniel and Ehud are GOD?
Of course not!
So to be called/made "Savior",
didn't make Othniel & Ehud, Almighty GOD!
So neither does it make Jesus!
[Acts 5.31, 13.23]

Othniel, Ehud, the saviors of Neh 9.27;
are all agents of the ONE GOD our Savior.
The ONE GOD saved through them in the OT.

Likewise in the NT,
the ONE GOD saves through His agent,
Jesus the Messiah.
That is why they are both referred to as Saviors.


So similar answer to questions 23 & 31.
Same terms, different contexts!

51. Does the Bible say that Jesus was God with us? Yes. Matthew 1:23.

It actually reads:
(Mat 1:23) Behold, a virgin shall be with child,
and shall bring forth a son,
and they shall call his name Emmanuel,
which being interpreted is, God with us.

Its the name "Emmanuel" which means
"God with us".
And in actuality, the boy in Isaiah chapters 7 & 8 was also called "Immanuel".
Did that make the child, GOD?
And also, Jesus is never actually recorded as being called by that name in the NT. Hmmm!

52. Did Jesus ever say, "I and my Father are one?" Yes. John 10:30.

And look at what else Jesus said:

(John 17:11) And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world,
and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me,
that they may be one, as we are.

(John 17:22) And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them;
that they may be one, even as we are one:

59. Does the Bible say that God shed His blood and that God laid down His life for us? Yes. Acts 20:28; I John 3:16. God was able to do this because He had taken upon Himself a human body.

Again, look at 1 John 3.16
The words 'of God' are in italics in our Bibles;
to indicate that these words are not in the Greek text;
but rather these words were added to our English translation
by the (trinitarian) translators.


Rather the verse actually reads:
(1 John 3:16) Hereby perceive we the love, because he laid down his life for us:
and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren.

Obviously, the context is about our Lord Jesus Christ;
and not about Almighty GOD, who cannot die!!

As for Acts 20.28, that's another translation issue!
However, always remember who translated the KJV Bible! And their theological bias.

Nevertheless, the Bible does not say anyway that GOD shed blood!

60. The Bible says that God is coming back with all his saints (Zechariah 14:5) and also that Jesus is coming back with all his saints (I Thessalonians 3:13). Are two coming back? No. Only one is coming back--our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ. Titus 2:13.

The question ought to be rather:
Are two coming?

Well ... we know that Jesus indeed is going to come back at his return.
However, are you not aware that after the 1000 years,
GOD Himself is going to come!!

(Rev 7:15) ... and he that sitteth on the throne shall dwell among them.

(Rev 21:2-3) And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. 3 And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, and be their God.


Oh BTW, the Greek text of Titus 2:13 can legitimately be translated another way, which shows that this verse actually speaks of:
the appearance of the glory of our Great God AND our Saviour Jesus Christ;

i.e. The Glory.

Compare:

(Mat 16:27) For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father
with his angels; ...
(Mark 8:38) ... when he cometh in the glory of his Father with the holy angels.
(Luke 9:26) ... when he shall come in his own glory, and in his Father's, and of the holy angels.