Shalom! My name is Adam Pastor

Welcome to ADONI MESSIAH which means
"My Lord Messiah" -
a fitting epithet to who Jesus (or Yeshua) is!

Here, I attempt to present the Apostolic Truths according to the Scriptures, that there is
One GOD, the Father, namely, YAHWEH,
and One Lord, GOD's only begotten Son,
Yeshua the Messiah.

And that one day YAHWEH will send His Son back to Earth to inaugurate the Everlasting Kingdom of GOD



Enjoy!


Monday, April 11, 2011

The Trinity Delusion - 3 Articles

Three further articles from the "Trinity Delusion" website.

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Article 1)

Shema: The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob
"The LORD our God, the LORD is One." (Deuteronomy 6:4).

The above verse is the simplest form of the Shema. The Hebrew text literally says, "YHVH our God YHVH is one." While we don't know for certain, and the matter is often disputed, the letters "YHVH" are usually understood by most Christian scholars to have been pronounced as "Yahweh" or "Yahveh." The word "Jehovah" is simply an anglicization of Yahweh just as Peter is an anglicization of the Greek name Petros and Jesus is an anglicization of the Greek name Iesous and Aramaic Yashua.

The Shema is a basic confession of Jews and Christians. It declares that God is one. We must ask ourselves a very important question. If God is "One" then in what way is God "one"? Just how is God "one"? What did God intend for us to understand by these words? And when other passages such as "there is no other but He" are considered, how do such words impact Deuteronomy 6:4? More importantly, what did God intend the ancient Jews to understand by these words? Are we to believe the above confession is intended to convey that God is one "substance," or that God is one trio, as Trinitarians want us to believe? Or did God intend to convey that He is one person? Did God want the Israelites to understand the Gentiles had many gods but the Israelite God in contrast was one substance? Is such a proprosal even reasonable?

The Shema identifies the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. But just who was the God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob? Was Abraham's one and only God just one person? Or was Abraham's one and only God three persons in number? Was Isaac and Jacob's one and only God just one person? Or was Isaac and Jacob's one and only God three persons in number? Just who was Israel's God? Who was Jesus' God? Was Jesus' one and only God a three person being? Or was Jesus' Father alone his one and only God? And if God is a three person being, why does the Bible indicate the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob had a servant-son named Jesus?

The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified His servant-son Jesus (Acts 3:13).

Jesus was an Israelite. He was the King of the Jews. Jesus stressed the vital importance of the Shema:

One of the scribes came and heard them arguing, and recognizing that He had answered them well, asked Him, "What commandment is the foremost of all?" Jesus answered, "The foremost is, 'Hear O Israel. The Lord our God the Lord is One' and 'You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength. The second is this, `You shall love your neighbor as yourself. There is no other commandment greater than these." So the scribe said to Him, "Well said Teacher. You have spoken the truth, for there is one God, and there is no other but He. And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God."" (Mark 12:28-34).

The Jewish scribe refers to this one God as "He." Now we must ask ourselves just who this Jewish scribe had in mind when he used the word "He." The Lord our God the Lord is one "He" and there is no other God but this one "He." Is it reasonable or or is it disingenuous to suggest this Jewish scribe had a three person being in mind and worshiped a Triune God? Or did he have one person in mind? Well we know from Scripture, and Jesus' own words, that the Jews considered their God to be one person - the Father (John 8:41,54). Are we really to believe this learned Jew was referring to a three person God? Let us also not forget that the statement "the Lord our God the Lord is one" is understood in terms of the words "there is no other but He" (see Deut 4:35). And we must also take very careful note of something Jesus says here. Jesus told this man he had answered wisely. Are we to believe Jesus was being sarcastically coy? We know this scribe was referring to someone he perceived to be one person, the Father. How then did Jesus say the Jewish scribe answered wisely if indeed God was actually a three person being? And when Jesus prayed the above words, as Jews do, just who did he himself have in mind? Did he really have a three person God in mind as Trinitarians would have us believe? Or did he simply have his Father in mind? In Jesus' own mind, just who was that one and only God whom they were talking about? One person, or three? Who was Jesus' one and only God?

"I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God" (John 20:17).

Jesus was the son of God. Who is "God" in the term "son of God"? Jesus? A three person being? Or is Jesus the son of the one God who happens to be his Father? Plainly, we are to understand that God is one and Jesus is another and God is Jesus' Father and Jesus is God's son. Does it really make sense to then claim the Son of God is God? Would it make any sense to claim the son of Adam is Adam or the son of David is David or the son of Noah is Noah?

Jesus said he was ascending to his God. This was the God that Jesus and the Jewish scribe were discussing and "there is no other but He." And Jesus clearly identifies his one God as his Father, not a Triune God. His Father was his one and only God. Jesus then goes further and reminds us that his God is our God. There is no difference between Jesus' God and our God. And of course there shouldn't be any difference or we would have two Gods/gods on our hands. If indeed there is only one God then Jesus can't have a different God than his followers. Did Jesus worship and serve a three person God? Or did Jesus worship and serve his father as his one and only God? To reasonable people who are honest with themselves, the answer is obvious. Jesus' God was his Father alone. And Jesus tells us that his one and only God is also our God - the Father.

Ask yourself a very important question and try to be reasonable and honest with yourself. Ask yourself, "Who was Jesus' God?" Now ask yourself if this was the God of Abraham, Issac, and Jacob who sent his servant-son Jesus? Now ask yourself if a Triune God is the same God Jesus served. And if not, ask yourself if this Triune God is another God?

"My God and Your God" - Jesus
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Article 2)

Jesus and a Jewish Scribe

Jesus prayed to his Father and identifies his Father as the only true God:

Father.... this is eternal life, that they may know You, the Only True God and Jesus Christ whom You sent.

The Only True God, Jesus' Father, sent Jesus. In Mark chapter 12, there is an interesting exchange between the Jew Jesus and a Jewish scribe:

And one of the scribes came up and heard them disputing with one another, and seeing that he answered them well, asked him, "Which commandment is the first of all?" Jesus answered, "The first is, "Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one; and you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind, and with all your strength.' The second is this, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' There is no other commandment greater than these." And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that He is one, and there is no other but He; and to love him with all the heart, and with all the understanding, and with all the strength, and to love one's neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices." And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God." And after that no one dared to ask him any question.

Now let us stop for a moment and ask ourselves a very important question. Just who was this Jewish scribe talking about when he said, "HE is one" and "there is no other but HE"? Is it reasonable to suggest this scribe had a three person being in mind? Or is it more reasonable to suggest he had one person in mind?

[The Pharisees]: "We have one Father: God." (John 8:41).

The Jews never perceived God to be anything but one person. It would be ridiculous to claim this Jewish scribe had anyone but one person in mind. Jesus confirms this fact:

Jesus answered, "If I glorify myself, My glory is nothing; it is My Father who glorifies Me, of whom you say, "He is our God" (John 8:54).

Jesus confirms that his Father was the God of the Jews. Jesus too was a Jew. Now notice how Jesus responds to the Jewish scribe.

And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that He is one, and there is no other but He; and to love him with all the heart, and with all the understanding, and with all the strength, and to love one's neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices." And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God."

Jesus wasn't a Trinitarian either. Both the Jewish scribe and Jesus the Jew had the same idea in mind when they said that God is one - Jesus' Father, one person.

Now it gets even more interesting. Notice how the Jesus said, "The Lord our God the Lord is one" and the Jewish scribe responsed to that statement by saying, "you have truly said that He is one, and there is no other but He." Clearly, the Jewish scribe is emphasizing the exclusivity of the God which they have in mind. He says that Jesus had just said "there is no other but He" indicating this is what the Shema is supposed to indicate.

And Jesus confirms this fact by saying he had answered wisely. We find the same idea at Deuteronomy 4:35. We must ask, "there is no other but WHO exactly"? Who did Jesus and this Jewish Scribe have in mind exactly? The honest and reasonable person knows the answer.

Jesus' God was his Father and his Father alone. And it is for this reason that we find Jesus teaching his disciples:

"I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God" (John 20:17).

The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob was one person, Jesus' Father (Acts 3:13). Jesus' God was his Father. Our God is Jesus' Father. Jesus taught us the truth explicitly when he said, "my God and your God." Let us not serve a different God than Jesus.

Do you thus requite the Lord, you foolish and senseless people? Is not he your Father, who created you, who made you and established you?....See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no God besides ME (Deuteronomy 32:6,39).
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Article 3)

Jesus Christ's One and Only God
"The LORD our God, the LORD is One." (Deuteronomy 6:4).

Jesus was a Jew. He was an obedient Jew. When Jesus confessed to God, "the LORD our God, the LORD is one" just who did he have in mind? A three person God? Or his Father alone?

Read the following Scripture verses and see if you can determine if Jesus' one and only God was a one person being or three person being.

He who conquers, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God. Never shall he go out of it, and I will write on him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem which comes down from my God out of heaven, and my own new name." (Rev 3:12).

"My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46).

But I know that you have not the love of God within you. I have come in the name of my Father, and you do not receive me. If another comes in his own name, him you will receive. How can you believe, who receive glory from one another and do not seek the glory that comes from the only God? (John 5:43-44).

The Head of Christ is God. (1 Corinthians 11:3).

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort. (2 Corinthians 1:3).

The God and Father of our Lord Jesus. (2 Corinthians 11:31).

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. (Ephesians 1:3).

The God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory (Ephesians 1:17).

We give thanks to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ (Colossians 1:3).

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ (1 Peter 1:3).

[Jesus] has made us kings and priests to his God and Father. (Revelation 1:6).

Father.... this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent (John 17:3).

Clearly, the one and only God of Jesus Christ was not a three person being but was his Father alone. Jesus' God was His Father and Jesus' Father was His God. We have not the slightest reason to believe any differently. And since Jesus is not a polytheist he taught us that his God is to be our God.

I am ascending to my Father and your Father and my God and your God (John 20:17).

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The above extract of articles taken from:
The Trinity Delusion

The Trinity Delusion - 4 Articles

What follows are four excellent articles from the "Trinity Delusion" website.
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Article 1)
Does worship of Jesus demonstrate he is God?
"Let all the angels of God worship him."

Trinitarian Claim

A very common claim by Trinitarians is to claim "Jesus is God" because we find both men and angels worshiping Jesus in the Bible.

Examination of the Claims

Proskyneo and the English word "Worship."

In Greek, there are two words which have been translated as "worship." Neither one of these Greek words do themselves contain the whole constellation of ideas which are usually associated with the English word "worship." In many minds, the English word "worship" is something one only does to the one God. This article deals with the Greek word proskyneo and demonstrates why Trinitarian claims concerning this particular Greek word are false.

This claim is extremely disingenuous because the English word "worship" does by itself imply a special kind of devotion to a divine being and in Christianity, God. However, what Trinitarian apologists often do not disclose is that the English word "worship" is used to translate two different Greek words, proskuneo, and latreuo. The first Greek word means simply to bow down before a higher authority. The second word refers to do divine service such as temple service. Most of the Trinitarian claims concern the word proskyneo and we shall soon see here that this word was used by the ancient Greek speaking people to refer to "worship" of ANY higher authority.

1. How the Greek word proskyneo is used in the Bible.

There are many, many examples in the Scriptures that show us how this Greek word is used. The corresponding Hebrew word is shachah. If we translated the word proskyneo as "worship" then Lot worshiped two angels (Genesis 19:1-2), Abraham worshiped the Hittites (Genesis 23:7,12), Isaac blesses Jacob to have all nations on earth worship him (Genesis 27:29), Jacob worshiped Esau (Genesis 33:1-4), Joseph's brothers worship him (Genesis 37:9-10; 42:3-6; 43:26-28), Abigail worshiped David's servants (1 Samuel 25:40-41), ... the sons of the prophets worshiped Elisha (2 Kings 2:15), David worshiped the Temple (Psalm 5:7) and all the people of Israel worshiped King David (1 Chronicles 29:20). And there are many more examples.

2. The Magi

Trinitarians will even sometimes use the example of the Magi to insist that proskyneo worship of Jesus necessarily demonstrates he was God. But this particular claim is absurd. ... We are told they came to bow down before a human King, not to God. They came to proskyneo worship a human infant not God. The reason they came to proskyneo worship this human being was because he was the King of the Jews.

Again we see that the reason they would do proskyneo worship was because they were respecting a higher authority.

3. Matthew 4:10: You shall worship the Lord your God and serve Him only

However, Trinitarians can't seem to get these facts through their heads or perhaps more rightly, they don't want to get the facts straight in their minds. And so they ignore the facts and appeal to some of their other mistaken interpretations of the Scriptures. One example of this kind of blunder is Matthew 4:10 where Jesus is being tempted by the devil to accept authority over the whole world if he will only bow down and worship him. Jesus then responds by quoting the Law, "You will worship the Lord your God and serve Him only." As usual, Trinitarians are so blinded by their own desires they do not see the problems with their own claims.

First, if the Trinitarian interpretation of this verse had any merit, then Lot, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, and David were all sinning when they proskyneo worshiped other identities and indeed David even worshiped the temple. Even further, according to the Trinitarian interpretation, the whole assembly of Israel then sinned when they proskyneo worshiped both YAHWEH and the King. [1 Chronicles 29.20]

Secondly, Trinitarians completely fail to see the time frame when Jesus made this statement. Jesus was made lower than the angels. And in Hebrews 1:6, all the angels were to bow down before Jesus only after God had raised him from the dead, after God gave him all authority in heaven and upon the earth, after God made him Lord, and after God sat him down at his right hand making him superior to the angels just as we read at Hebrews 1:4-5.

Furthermore, the word "only" in this verse [Matt 4.10] does not qualify the word proskyneo which is translated as "worship." It only qualifies the word latreuo which is translated as "serve." Nowhere is Jesus given latreuo worship. ...

In his temptation, Jesus was being tempted to DISOBEY God and rather do the devil's will. Jesus' response was that he would rather submit to his God and Father's authority and serve Him alone.

4. The Angels Worship Jesus

Another blind claim is to say that since the angels worshiped Jesus (Hebrews 1:6) then he must be God Himself. However, this completely ignores the context which tells us precisely WHY they are to bow down in subjection to Jesus. Being a man, the writers tells us that Jesus was made lower than the angels (2:7) but now in his resurrection he is crowned with glory and honor (2:7) and in this way has become superior to the angels have inherited a better name than the angels (1:4). In his resurrection God made him "Lord" (Acts 2:36) giving him all authority in heaven and earth (Matthew 28:18) when he sat Jesus down at his right hand. In this way, he became superior in position to the angels, his God anointing him to be above the angels (Heb 1:9).

You have put all things in subjection under his feet. (Heb 2:8). Jesus is at the right hand of God, having gone into heaven, and having angels and authorities and powers subjected to Him. (1 Peter 3:22)

It is quite clear why angels are to proskyneo worship Jesus. He now sits in a position higher than the angels ... and in this way he has become better than the angels.

Indeed, carefully regard the following:

Then King David said to the entire assembly... Then David said to all the assembly, "Now bless YAHWEH your God." And all the assembly blessed YAHWEH, the God of their fathers, and bowed low and WORSHIPED YAHWEH and the King.... Then Solomon sat on the Throne of YAHWEH as King instead of David his father; and he prospered, and all Israel obeyed him.

All the officials, the mighty men, and also all the sons of King David pledged allegiance to King Solomon. (1 Chronicles 29).

Notice how King [Solomon] had sat on "the throne of YAHWEH" and all the assembly of Israel proskyneo worshiped both YAHWEH and King David. And indeed, the entire first chapter of the book of Hebrews is about the fact that Jesus has sat down at the right hand of God; ... And Jesus has not only been given authority over Israel like his father David but he was given authority over all things when God raised him from the dead. The one God has put his son in charge of everything. For this reason also, we are told that God has appointed a man through whom He, God, will judge all men (Acts 17:30-31).

5. Peter and Cornelius

Another way Trinitarians attempt to misrepresent the facts is by quoting the following passage:
"When Peter entered, Cornelius met him, and fell at his feet and worshiped him. But Peter raised him up, saying, "Stand up; I too am just a man." (Acts 10:25-26).

The word here too is proskyneo. Here, Trinitarians often claim, is evidence that Peter knew that nobody was to bow down before anyone but God. However, this is reading an extraneous concept into the text. Peter is not a King nor was there any reason for Cornelius to bow down to him.

Cornelius was bowing down to Peter because God had given him a vision to send men to bring Peter to his household. Hence, Cornelius was in a state where he perceived that God himself considered Peter to be a very important man. But Peter was taught by Jesus to serve and not lord over anyone. Hence, Peter was taught by Jesus to serve people and not have them bow down to him.

In the Scriptures, it is plain that there was nothing wrong with bowing down in subjection to higher authorities (proskyneo) other than God. However, there was a big problem with bowing down before the host of heaven or other gods. God forbids anyone to do this type of thing. But he forbids no one from bowing down before higher authorities. In fact, we read at Romans 13:1ff that the authorities which exist were estalbished by God. To refuse to bow down before these authorities is to disobey God.

In his temptation, Jesus was being tempted to DISOBEY God and rather do the devil's will. Jesus' response was that he would rather submit to his God and Father's authority and serve Him alone.

...

Conclusion

When we have all the facts before us the truth is plain to see. People all over the Bible are bowing down before higher authorities who are not God. The Israelites were not allowed to bow down before other gods since doing so would be a gesture that they were submitting to the authority of these gods and not to Yahweh their God, a jealous God. And when we come to the New Testament, we find people appropriately bowing down before the higher authority Jesus because he is the King of Israel and because he is the Son of God Most High.

He was royalty and humans bow down before royalty, their King, and rightly so. God has appointed all authorities in heaven and on earth. And when the man Jesus is resurrected and ascends to the [right hand of] God, all creation is subject to him. We are told this resurrected man is above all other authority and rule with all the angels subject to him. Indeed, we are told that God made him "Lord" in his resurrection (Acts 2:30-36) and have given him all this authority (Matthew 28:18) having sat down at the right hand of God until he puts all his enemies under his feet. The Trinitarian claim is a farce.


Notes:

Proskyneo: The word proskyneo simply means "to bow down before," or to prostrate one's self before another in the sense that one is acknowledge his low estate as compared to the high estate of the person he is bowing down before. It is a gesture of submission to a higher authority. This Greek word does not come packed with the the constellation of religious ideas that we have with the English word "worship."

Latreuo. This Greek word is still not exactly the same as the English word "worship" but it is much closer and usually denotes religious worship. It carries the idea of serving a higher authority in a religious or spiritual sense. While this word also does not itself connotate service to a divine being, the concept of serving a divine being is indeed usually implied.

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Article 2)
Mark 2:7
Who can forgive sins but God alone?

The Trinitarian Claim

Trinitarians claim that only God can forgive sins. In this passage, the Pharisees declare that only God can forgive sins. But here Jesus forgives sins and therefore it is claimed he must be God.

The Trinitarian Response

Trinitarians here resort to a nullification of Jesus' words. Their response usually goes something like, "Are you saying Jesus is not good?" suggestively implying that the issue is about moral goodness. Your response should be, "No, I am saying Jesus himself said only his God is good. Would you like to know why he said this?"

Examination of the Claim

Trinitarians Missing the Very Point of this Narrative

Who can forgive sins? Answer: The one whom God gave authority to forgive sins. The man Jesus of Nazareth that's who!

And not only Jesus of Nazareth but since his resurrection there are others as well. At times, Trinitarian promotions of their favorite doctrine clearly reveal their total disregard for the real message in deference to their apologetic mission. Trinitarians here make the same mistake as the Pharisees. It is the Pharisees who insisted only God can forgive sins. The very point of this account is to illustrate how Jesus demonstrated the Pharisees were dead wrong.

Let's note what Jesus says in the same account written by the hand of Matthew:

"But that you may know that the Son of man has authority on earth to forgive sins, he then said to the paralytic, "Rise, take up your bed and go home" (Matthew 9:6).

Notice what Jesus does here. The Pharisees charge that only God can forgive sins. But Jesus tells them that the Son of man has authority to forgive sins on earth and he is healing the paralytic to prove to these Pharisees with this sign that he has this authority. He asks, "Which is easier?" Is it easier to do a miracle or forgive a man's sins? Obviously, it is the latter. So Jesus does the more difficult to prove that he has the authority to do the easier thing. Man was given this authority and Jesus is demonstrating to the Pharisees that their notion that God alone can forgive sins is in error. Trinitarians should take note.

Now let us carefully note what Matthew has to say in his parallel account of Mark's account:

"When the crowds saw it, they were awestruck, and they glorified God, who had given such authority to men (Matthew 9:8).

Yes, the crowds were quite amazed by the fact that God had given such authority to men to forgive sins. Jesus had proven the Pharisees to be completely wrong.

Notice how we are told that God gave this authority to men, clearly showing us that Jesus as a man was given this authority by his God.

So, what more do we need to say here? The Trinitarian abuse of Mark 2:7 to promote their doctrine is an absolutely apalling example of their errors. The passage demonstrates that the Pharisaical notion that only God could forgive sins was wrong and Matthew writes that the crowds were amazed that God had given such authority to forgive sins to men. We should also take note here that God is distinguished from the man Jesus in this passage. Perhaps, one could make up a little story here that the crowds didn't realize Jesus was God yet. Well, that wouldn't make any difference at all. Matthew wrote this passage under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit and he said that God had indeed given such authority to men, and the man who had been given this authority, happened to be Jesus the Nazarene.

Let's look at Mark's parallel passage and we will insert the phrase Matthew left out of the same account in his Gospel.

And behold, they brought to him a paralytic, lying on his bed, and when Jesus saw their faith he said to the paralytic, "Take heart, my son. Your sins are forgiven." And behold, some of the scribes said to themselves, "This man is blaspheming. [Who can forgive sins but God alone?]" But Jesus, knowing their thoughts, said, "Why do you think evil in your hearts? For which is easier, to say, "Your sins are forgiven,' or to say, "Rise and walk'? But that you may know that the Son of man has authority on earth to forgive sins," he then said to the paralytic, "Rise, take up your bed and go home." And he rose and went home. When the crowds saw it, they were in awe, and they glorified God who had given such authority to MEN." (Matthew 9:2-8; Mk 2:7).

If anything this passage militates heavily against Trinitarianism because it illustrates that God gave authority to men in the giving of this authority to the man Jesus. It not only distinguishes God from the man Jesus but it also shows us that if Jesus was God, why would he need to be given this authority from God in the first place? After all, Trinitarians claim Jesus assumed humanity and did not leave behind his divinity. But here we see God had given him that authority. Now that we have demonstrated these facts, the Trinitarian has no alternative but to claim God gave this to Jesus "in his humanity." But what will do that for him? One minute he claims that Jesus can do certain things "because he is God" and the next minute is insisting God had to give him this authority "became he was a man." So which is it? God did not give authority to a human nature; God gave authority to a person because that person was himself a man.

The Trinitarian apologetic is once again is shown to be extremely disingenuous. The passages themselves tell us that the reason Jesus was forgiving this man's sins was that he as a man who was given authority to do so by God, not because he was "God," and so the Trinitarian finds himself not serving the teaching of Jesus but falling down flat on the side of the Pharisees.

Jesus gives this same authority to his apostles. After he rose from the dead, he breathed the Holy Spirit upon them and told them that if they forgave the sins of any they were forgiven and if they retained the sins of any they were retained. Before Jesus said this he said, "As the Father sent me, I also send you" and breathed the Spirit into them. [John 20.21-23]

When Jesus was baptized at the Jordan, he was given authority in the same way by the Spirit to forgive sins. And later, he sent his Apostles to do the very same thing. God has granted this authority to men through His Holy Spirit that lives in these men who do forgive sins in his name. And the Father sent Jesus, now he also sent his Apostles. This is why they baptized in the name of Jesus for the forgiveness of sins. They had the authority given to them to do these things in the name of Jesus by the Spirit he gave them just as Jesus did these things in the name of his God and Father. As he himself said on this occasion, "Just as the Father sent me, I now send you."

The teaching in this gospel is that God had given authority to forgive sins to men. To prove he had this authority, he asked which was greater, to forgive sins, or to heal a crippled man. And so he healed a crippled man to prove he was given the authority to forgive sins. We are plainly told by Peter that God had anointed him with such authority (Acts 2:22; 10:38; cf. Luke 4:18). Who can forgive sins but God alone? Those who have been given that authority in the Holy Spirit. And the man Jesus was given that authority by God at the Jordan. Indeed it is by God dwelling in Jesus in the Spirit that sins were forgiven.

Conclusion

The very point of this narrative is to demonstrate that God had given authority to a man, the man Jesus, to forgive sins. And Jesus demonstrates to the Pharisees that he had been given this authority by doing the greater miracle, healing the paralytic.

"They glorified God, who had given such authority to men."

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Article 3)

Does the title "Lord" indicate that Jesus is God?

Trinitarian Claim

Trinitarians sometimes make the claim that the word "Lord" is a term which does by itself signify that "Jesus is God."

Examination of the Claim

1. Many Lords in Scripture

There are numerous characters in the Bible who are called "Lord." The word "Lord" is simply a term used to refer to someone with a higher authority.

The following examples show how the word is used in Scriptures to refer to an array of different individuals:

Abraham is Sarah's Lord

So Sarah laughed to herself, saying, "After I have grown old, and my Lord is old, shall I have pleasure?" (Genesis 18:12; cf. 1 Peter 3:6).

Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him "Lord" (1 Peter 3:6).

Two Angels are Lot's Lords

The two angels came to Sodom in the evening and Lot was sitting in the gate of Sodom. When Lot saw them, he arose to meet them, and bowed himself with his face to the earth, and said, "My Lords, turn aside, I pray you, to your servant's house and spend the night, and wash your feet; then you may rise up early and go on your way." [Gen 19:1-2]

The Philippian Jailer calls Paul and Silas "Lords."

"Lords, what must I do to be saved? (Acts 16:30).

There are numerous characters in Scripture who are called "Lord." And as we can see, it has nothing to do with deity. You may also note how Trinitarians traditionally refrain from translating the word as "Lord" in verses like Acts 16:30 above. However, this is misleading since it is the exact same Greek word [Kurios] that is used to refer to the Lord Jesus. The word [Kurios] was quite simply used to refer to anyone who had authority over someone else.

2. God made Jesus Lord

The word "Lord" is a term which refer to authority. When Jesus rose from the dead he said, "All authority in heaven and upon the earth has been given to me" (Matthew 28:18). At Acts 2:36 we read that God made Jesus Lord when He raised him from the dead.

Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear. For David did not ascend into the heavens, but he says himself: 'The LORD said to my Lord, "Sit at My right hand, until I make your enemies Your footstool." ' Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ."

The falsity of the Trinitarian claim is manifested when we realize that if the word "Lord" meant "God" then Trinitarians would have to say that God made Jesus "God" when he raised him from the dead.

God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knew will bow, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (Philippians 2:9-11).

4. The word "Lord" in the Hebrew Scriptures

Understanding the use of the English word "Lord" in the Old Testament is a bit more complicated than it is in the New Testament. The reason for this is that most English Old Testament Bibles use the word "LORD" to translate the tetragrammaton "YHWH," that is, "Yahweh." Jews, not wishing to pronounce the divine name used the term "Adonai" in place of "YHWH." Adonai is the word we translate as "Lord" in English Bibles. So when you see the word "LORD" with all capital letters in English Bibles, it translates ... "YHWH." ... Adonai is a special Hebrew word used only to refer to Yahweh God. [Translated 'Lord' in our English Bibles.]

Another Hebrew word "Adoni" is the normal Hebrew word for "lord." This distinction is very important. But there is a reason for the difference in the one vowel between these two words. When referring to someone other than God as "Lord" the word "Adoni" was always used. This one letter makes a very significant difference just as the one letter between "He" and "She" makes a big difference in English. ...

The Hebrew word "Adoni" occurs nearly 200 [actually 195] times in the Old Testament. In each and every single occurrence, it is a reference to a human superior and not a reference to God.

And indeed, this is also the very same word used at Psalm 110:1 in reference to the Messiah, "The LORD said to my Lord," that is, "[YAHWEH] said to my Adoni." ...

Conclusion

It is quite clear from the evidence that once again the Trinitarian claim is utterly false. Yes the one God is Lord but that does not mean someone who is Lord is God.

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Article 4)

Psalm 110:1

"The LORD said to my Lord"

Trinitarian Claim

Trinitarians sometimes claim this verse refers to God the Father speaking to the Son at some point in the past.

Examination of the Claim

1. Peter Affirms that the first "Lord" or "YAHWEH" is God the Father

Therefore, having been therefore exalted at the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out this which you see and hear. For David did not ascend into the heavens but he himself says, 'The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies a footstool.' Let all the house of Israel therefore know assuredly that God has made him, both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified. (Acts 2:34-36).

Peter is here referring to David's prophetic word in the Spirit whereby his seed Jesus would ascend to the right hand of the throne of God the Father ... Obviously, in Psalm 110:1 Yahweh is the Father of Jesus and not Jesus.

2. Peter Declares this Psalm was Fulfilled when God raised Jesus from the dead and made him Lord

This Jesus God raised up again, of which we are all witnesses. Therefore having been exalted at the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out this which you see and hear. For David did not ascend into the heavens but he himself says, "The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies a footstool.' Let all the house of Israel therefore know assuredly that God has made him, both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified. (Acts 2:34-36).

Clearly, Peter teaches us that Psalm 110:1, "The LORD said to my Lord" came to pass when God exalted the man Jesus to his right hand having raised him from the dead and making him "Lord."

Analysis of the Evidence

1. The Whole Psalm 110 and Hebrews Chapter 5

YAHWEH says to my Lord [Adoni], "Sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool." YAHWEH sends forth from Zion your mighty sceptre. Rule in the midst of your enemies. Your people will offer themselves freely on the day you lead your host upon the holy mountains. From the womb of the morning like dew your youth will come to you. YAHWEH has sworn and will not change his mind, "You are a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek." YAHWEH is at your right hand. He will shatter kings on the day of his wrath. He will judge among the nations, filling them with corpses. He will shatter chiefs over the wide earth. He will drink from the brook by the way; therefore he will lift up his head.

Now carefully observe what the Hebrews writer says:

So also Christ did not glorify Himself so as to become a high priest, but He who said to Him, "You are my son, Today I have begotten you," just as He says also in another passage, "You are a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek." In the days of His flesh, He offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save Him from death, and He was heard because of His piety. Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered. And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation, being designated by God as a high priest according to the order of Melchizedek. (Hebrews 5:5-10; cf. 7:1-15).

And again, we find that that Psalm 110:1 was fulfilled when Jesus rose from the dead and ascended into heaven. In Acts, Peter quotes Psalm 110:1 and indicates this came to fulfillment when God raised Jesus from the dead and made him "Lord" sitting Jesus down at his right hand. In Hebrews, the writer quotes Psalm 110:4 and indicates this was fulfilled when Jesus became High Priest according to the order of Melchizedek when God raised him from the dead.

2. Jesus' Challenge

In this passage David refers to the Messiah as "my Lord" and the LORD, YHWH,1 is speaking to David's Lord. Jesus of Nazareth had challenged the Pharisees with this passage. And here in that very same passage, we have Jesus affirming that YAHWEH his Father is not only the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob but that his Father is that one God of the Shema, "the LORD our God the LORD is one."

Jesus said to them, "Is not the reason why you are wrong, that you know neither the scriptures nor the power of God? For when they rise from the dead, they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven. And as for the dead being raised, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the passage about the bush, how God said to him, "I [YHWH] am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob'? He is not God of the dead, but of the living; you are quite wrong." And one of the scribes came up and heard them disputing with one another, and seeing that he answered them well, asked him, "Which commandment is the first of all?" Jesus answered, "The first is, "Hear, O Israel: The Lord [YHWH] our God, the Lord [YHWH] is one, and you shall love the Lord [YHWH] your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind, and with all your strength.' The second is this, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' There is no other commandment greater than these." And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that He is one, and there is no other but He, and to love him with all the heart, and with all the mind, and with all the strength, and to love one's neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices." And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God." And after that no one dared to ask him any question. And answering, teaching in the temple, Jesus said, "How can the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David? David himself, inspired by the Holy Spirit, declared, "The Lord [YHWH] said to my Lord [Adoni], Sit at my right hand, till I put your enemies under your feet.' David himself calls him Lord, so how is he his son?" And the great crowd heard him gladly. (Mark 12:24-37; see 11:27).2

At Psalm 110:1, we have YHWH speaking to the Son and YHWH is obviously the Father, thereby excluding Jesus from being YHWH. Peter testifies that YHWH here is the Father of Jesus Christ. And in the context of the Shema where Jesus acknowledges that YHWH is that one God that he himself serves, an obvious reference to his Father, Jesus challenges the Pharisees on Psalm 110:1 where he identifies himself, not as YHWH, but as Adoni, the "Lord" of David to whom YHWH is speaking to in that passage.

Jesus therefore identifies the one God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and also the one God of the Shema as his Father. And when a scribe responded to Jesus saying that He is one, and there is no other, Jesus responds by saying he answered wisely. This passage presents a clear testimony that Jesus acknowledge the Father alone as the one and only God.

Conclusion

The Bible quite clearly shows us that Psalm 110:1, "The LORD said to my Lord," is prophetic and came to pass when God raised Jesus from the dead and made him "Lord" just as Psalm 110:4 came to pass when God raised Jesus from the dead. Additionally, in the context of this verse, Jesus is identifying his Father as the one YAHWEH of the Shema where he and a Jewish scribe whole-heartedly agree, "there is no other but HE."


Notes:

1. The English word "LORD" in all capital letters is used to indicate the divine name YHWH, the tetragrammaton, which is believed to be pronounced "Yahweh." ... Later Jews preferred to used the word "Adonai" in place of the divine name.

2. Matthew and Luke's account:

But Jesus answered them, "You are wrong, because you know neither the scriptures nor the power of God. For in the resurrection they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven. And as for the resurrection of the dead, have you not read what was said to you by God, "I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob'? He is not God of the dead, but of the living." And when the crowd heard it, they were astonished at his teaching. But when the Pharisees heard that he had silenced the Sadducees, they came together. And one of them, a lawyer, asked him a question, to test him. "Teacher, which is the great commandment in the law?" And he said to him, "You shall love the Lord [YHWH] your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind. This is the great and first commandment. And a second is like it, You shall love your neighbor as yourself. On these two commandments depend all the law and the prophets." Now while the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them a question, saying, "What do you think of the Christ? Whose son is he?" They said to him, "The son of David." He said to them, "How is it then that David, inspired by the Spirit, calls him Lord [Adoni], saying, "The Lord [YHWH] said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet'? If David thus calls him Lord, how is he his son?" And no one was able to answer him a word, nor from that day did any one dare to ask him any more questions. (Matthew 22:29-46).

But that the dead are raised, even Moses showed, in the passage about the bush, where he calls the Lord [YHWH] the God of Abraham and the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob. Now he is not God of the dead, but of the living, for all live to him." And some of the scribes answered, "Teacher, you have spoken well." For they no longer dared to ask him any question. But he said to them, "How can they say that the Christ is the son of David? For David himself says in the Book of Psalms, "The Lord [YHWH] said to my Lord [Adoni], Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies a stool for your feet.' David then calls him Lord [Adoni], so how is he his son?" (Luke 20:37-44).

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The above extract of articles taken from: The Trinity Delusion

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