Christians for One God - Jesus is our Lord and Savior, but only the Father is our God

Christians for One God

Jesus is our Lord and Savior, but only the Father is our God

PROCLAIMING ONE GOD

• The Bible constantly says there is only “one God,” whom Jesus called “the/my Father.”
• The NT proclaims that the Father is the one and only God (1 Cor 8.4, 6; Eph 4.6; Jn 17.3).
• In all of the sayings of Jesus recorded in the four NT gospels, he never claimed to be God.
• Twice Jesus was sort of accused of claiming to be God, and both times he denied it (Jn 5.18-46; 10.30-38).
• Several times Jesus addressed or described the Father as “my God” (Mt 27.46; Jn 20.17; Rev 3.2, 12).
• The NT repeatedly states that Jesus had a God—the Father (Rom 15.6; 2 Cor 1.3; 11.31; Eph 1.3, 17).
• None of the evangelistic messages in the book of Acts declare that Jesus is God.
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• None of the requirements for salvation in the NT include belief that Jesus is God (e.g., Rom 10.9-10).
• Though Christians are taught they must believe God is three Persons, the word “Trinity” is not in the Bible.
• The Bible doesn’t teach Trinitarianism—God is one essence existing as three co-equal, co-eternal Persons.
• Most Trinitarians read the Bible uncritically by superimposing their theological grid of Trinitarianism on it.
• The early, Jewish Christians were strictly monotheistic and had never heard of God being three persons.
• The Word of God is not a personal entity distinct from God, but that through which he expresses his mind.
• God’s Word is to God what a human word is to a human since humans were made in the image of God.

EXPLAINING "ONE GOD" VERSES

The following verses proclaim that only the Father is God and/or indicate that Jesus cannot be God. These verses are arranged in what we generally think is their order of importance in affirming these things clearly.

Unless otherwise noted, scripture quotations are from the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), which is preferred by scholars. Other abbreviations are as follows:

NT=New Testament
LXX=The Septuagint (Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible begun in the 3rd century BCE
JPS=Jewish Publication Society

“Jesus Is Not God” Verses	Our Explanation
John 17.1, 3: Jesus prayed, “Father,… this is eternal life, that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.”	We think it doesn’t get any clearer than this, that the Father is “the only true God,” so that Jesus Christ cannot be God. Moreover, Jesus said it himself.
1 Corinthians 8.4,6: “’there is no God but one.’…yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.”	Paul alludes to the Shema, in Deut 6.4, which says God is “one.” Then he says this “one God” is “the Father.” Next, Paul identifies “Jesus Christ” as “one Lord.” So, for Paul, only the Father is the one God, and he reserves the title “Lord” exclusively for Jesus. His “from/for whom” language refers to God the Father as creator. Paul’s “through whom” expression refers to Jesus for whom the Father made all things and over which Jesus will be their head.
Ephesians 4.4-6: “There is … one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all, who is above all and through all and in all.”	Again, Paul applies his “one Lord” language exclusively to Jesus. Then he clearly identifies the “one God” as “Father.” Finally, he says the Father is supreme over all, and “all” includes Jesus (cf. John 14.28; 1 Cor. 11.3).
John 5.44: Jesus called the Father “the one who alone is God.”	We don’t think this needs any explanation, and it is Jesus himself who said it.
John 14.28: “The Father is greater than I.”	Jesus means this not only functionally, but essentially.
Mark 12.28-34: “One of the scribes … asked him [Jesus], ‘Which commandment is the first of all?’ Jesus answered, ‘The first is, Hear, O Israel: the Lord our God, the Lord is one;’… Then the scribe said to him, ‘You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that “he is one, and beside him there is no other;”’… When Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, ‘You are not far from the kingdom of God.’”	Jesus answers the scribe’s question by first quoting the Shema as saying God is numerically “one.” The Hebrew word echad in the Shema (Deut 6.4) generally is treated numerically, as it is in the LXX; but some authorities, including rabbis and the JPS, render it “alone.” This scribe, however, indicated that he understood it numerically, and Jesus accepted what he said. Such an understanding disallows the doctrine of the Trinity.
Mark 10.17-18: A man asked Jesus, “‘Good Teacher,what must I do to inherit eternal life?’ Jesus said to him, ‘Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.’”	Church fathers asserted that Jesus implied he was God. But that is irrelevant to the man’s question. And Jesus was not denying his goodness. Rather, he meant only God the Father is good in the absolute sense.
“My God” Verses. Jesus identified the Father as “my God” several times: on the cross (Matt. 27.46; Mark15.34); appearing to Mary Magdalene to tell his disciples, “I ascend to My Father and your Father, and my God and your God” (John 20.17); and 5x in Revelation 3.2, 12.	So, the NT clearly reveals that Jesus called the Father “my God” several times. Furthermore, the NT never says the Father calls Jesus “my God” or anything to that effect. Plus, the NT never presents angels or humans calling Jesus “my God,” although see the comment below regarding John 20.28.
Jesus Has a God Verses. Paul repeatedly writes the phrase, “the God and Father of the/our Lord Jesus (Christ)” (Romans 15.6; 2 Corinthians 1.3; 11.31; Ephesians 1.3; Colossians 1.3). He also writes, “the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory” (Ephesians 1.17). And Paul writes in most of the salutations of his thirteen letters, “Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.	Paul clearly believed that only the Father is God andthat he is the God of Jesus Christ. Thus, Paul could not possibly have believed that Jesus is God. Conversely, neither Paul nor any other NT writers or characters ever reciprocate by saying that Jesus is the God of the Father. Paul was much educated as a Pharisee; if, as a result of his Christian conversion, he believed God is three persons, one being Jesus, it would be in the NT.
1 Corinthians 15.27-28: After Jesus returns with his kingdom and subdues all his enemies, “he hands over the kingdom to God the Father….then the Son himself will also be subjected to the one who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all.”	Scripture repeatedly states that Jesus is essentially subordinate to God the Father, so that Jesus cannot be equally God. This is the only Bible text which tells of this future act of Jesus subjecting himself to the Father as evidence of his essential subordination.
Romans 16.27: Paul writes, “to the only wise God, through Jesus Christ, be the glory forever.”	The ultimate object of our praise and glorifying should be God the Father by means of our Lord Jesus Christ.
James 2.19: “You believe that God is one; you do well. Even the demons believe—and shudder.”	Neither demons nor Jesus’ brother, James, believed that Jesus was God or that God is three persons.

EXPLAINING "JESUS IS GOD" VERSES

Most distinguished Trinitarian scholars who have written on the doctrine of the Trinity, or more particularly, that Jesus is God, cite the following texts as the foremost biblical support for these beliefs. We only call them “Jesus is God verses” since this is the easiest way to identify them and indicate that’s what Trinitarians think they say, but, of course, we do not. Trinitarian scholars generally do not regard other scriptures as important as these. Unless otherwise noted, scripture quotations are from the New Revised Standard Version (NRSV), which is the English Bible translation preferred by most scholars.

OT=Old Testament
MT=Masoretic Text (Hebrew OT)
LXX=Septuagint(Old Greek OT)
NT=New Testament
KJV= King James Version
NEB=New English Bible
NAB=New American Bible

Trinitarians Say	We Say
Genesis 1.26, 3.22, and 11.7 relate God the Father speaking to “us” and “our” in his decision to make man. He therein addresses the other two members of the Trinity: God the Son and God the Holy Spirit.	Jews have always correctly believed that their God is a single person and that their scriptures reflect this. Consequently, they have rightly interpreted the “us” and “our” in these Genesis texts as God (the Father) speaking to a select group of angels. Cf. “us” in Isa 6.8 with “seraphim” in vv. 2 and 6.
Isaiah 9.6 identifies Jesus as “mighty God.”	The Hebrew text is el gibbor, and it can be translated “mighty warrior.” That fits better the prior context, in vv. 4-5, which is the yet future messianic destruction.
Mark 2.5-7 indicates that Jesus is God because it says he forgave a man’s sins, then healed him, and scribes sitting there who heard and saw this rightly thought, “who can forgive sins but God alone?”	No, these scribes erred. Jesus therein also claimed “authority on earth to forgive sins” (v. 11). It was given to him by God the Father and thus not inherent in Jesus’ own being (cf. Jn 5.18, 28). Moreover, on other occasions Jesus declared that the Father had given him “all things” (Mt 11.27; 28.18; Jn 3.35; 13.3; 16.15; 17.2, 10). Such essential subordination to the Father necessitates that Jesus cannot also be God.
John 1.1c reads, “and the Word was God,” and v. 14 says “the Word became flesh,” referring to Jesus’ incarnation. These two texts taken together declare as strongly as any Bible text that Jesus was God.	Translate John 1.1c is very complicated because its Greek text has multiple grammatical issues: (1) the word order of logos (word) and theos (God) in 1.1b is reversed in 1.1c, (2) their order in 1.1c is reversed in this common translation, and (3) theos is anarthrous (no article) in 1.1c, but not in 1.1b. So, the NEB has a more accurate translation of 1.1c which reads, “what God was, the Word was.” This rendering, similar in meaning to Heb 1.3, says the Word is like God, not is God. And church fathers surely erred in treating the Word, here, as a personal entity distinct from God.
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John 5.18 says that after Jesus healed a man on the sabbath, “For this reason the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because he was not only breaking the sabbath, but was also calling God his own Father, making himself equal to God,” which suggests that Jesus was God or a god.	The author means that this is not his assessment but that of Jesus’ opponents. Indeed, Jesus never broke the sabbath, but only the Jews’ false commandments regarding Sabbath-keeping. The author indicates this by then reporting that Jesus refuted this allegation in vv. 19-46. Jesus begins it by saying, “the Son can do nothing on his own” (v. 19; cf. v. 30). This can’t be true if he’s God. Instead, Jesus reveals that he is essentially subordinate to God the Father for giving him eternal life and the authority both to raise the dead and execute future judgment (vv. 21-28). Jesus adds that the Father is “the one who alone is God” (v. 44). Besides, this text says the Jews accused Jesus of making himself equal to God because he was calling God his Father. If correct, Christians calling God their Father makes them equal to God, which is absurd.
John 8.24, 28, 58 presents Jesus as saying “I am he,” in which “he” does not appear in the Greek text. In each case he alludes to the “I am” of Exodus 3.14, thus indirectly identifying himself as God.	If Jesus’ opponents had thought he herein identified himself as God, they wouldn’t have asked him, “Who are you?” (v. 25). Rather, Jesus meant, “I am the Son of Man” (cf. v. 28). In v. 58, he didn’t claim to have preexisted, but only meant he outranks Abraham.
John 10.30 relates that Jesus said, “I and my Father are one.” This is the primary gospel saying of Jesus in which he identifies himself as God. The Greek word here translated “one” is heis. Jesus meant it as “one in essence,” thus indirectly claiming the same deity as that of God the Father.	The context indicates Jesus meant he and the Father were unified in their relationship and work. The same Greek word, heis, occurs in Jn 17.11, 21-22, affirming this meaning. Jesus explains in John 10.38 what he meant by “one” by saying, “the Father is in me and I am in the Father,” thus not claiming deity. God being in Christ (2 Cor 5.19) is not Christ being God. Jesus later said, “the Father is greater than I” (14.28).
John 10.33 relates that Jesus’ Jewish opponents correctly said to him, “you, though only a human being, are making yourself God.”	On the contrary, they erred in making this accusation. And Jesus refuted it by citing Ps 82.6, which calls the rulers of Israel “gods.” He then implied that it would be acceptable to likewise identify him, who is greater than them. Yet he only says, “I said, ‘I am God’s Son’” (Jn 10.34). Jesus being God’ Son doesn’t indicate he is God. The title “son/Son of God” should be understood by its OT usage as someone uniquely related to God since it is applied to angels, men, Israel’s kings, and Israel itself. Yet Jesus is the Son of God far above all others.
John 20.28 reports that when Thomas saw the risen Jesus, he said to him, “My Lord and my God.” This is the clearest and strongest statement in the NT in which someone called Jesus “God.”	Thomas calls Jesus “my Lord.” His expression “my God” indicates not only that Thomas was praising God for raising Jesus from the dead, but that he was recognizing that the Father indwells Jesus. How so? Thomas recalled what Jesus told him a few days earlier, recorded only in this gospel, “Whoever has seen me has seen the Father,” because “I am in the Father and the Father is in me” (John 14.9-11). Thus, Thomas herein does not call Jesus God but says God is in Jesus.
Romans 9.5 calls Jesus God because it reads, “the Messiah, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.”	This text has a grammatical difficulty. That is why some versions translate it differently, in which it does not call Jesus God or they have an alternate reading as such in a footnote. The reason is that ancient Greek did not have punctuation or spaces between words, thus making it is difficult for translators to decide how to punctuate a text. Also, “over all” and “blessed” are applied to God the Father in the NT.
Philippians 2.6-8 says Jesus preexisted in “the form of God” and possessed “equality with God,” which indicates his incarnation—God as the Logos/Son came down from heaven to become a man. This is further indicated since he “emptied himself” of certain divine attributes to become a man, either by laying them aside or choosing not to exercise them during his incarnation.	Trinitarians err by superimposing their Christology as a grid on this text, thus insisting it indicates Jesus preexisted. On the contrary, “form of God” refers to Jesus being made in God’s image (Gen 1.26). “Equality with God” alludes to Satan deceitfully telling Adam he could be “like God” (Gen 3.5). And, if Jesus “emptied himself” of certain divine attributes to become man, he no longer was God. Rather, these words refer to Jesus’ humility in accepting God’s role for him to deny (empty) himself and die on the cross. Scholars call this “the human interpretation”in contrast to “the preexistence interpretation.”
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1 Timothy 2.5 indicates Jesus is a God-man since it says, “there is one God; there is also one mediator between God and humankind, Christ Jesus.”	Since this says “one God,” which surely refers to the Father, Jesus cannot also be God. Jesus was qualified to be the mediator by being the sinless “ransom” who died for our sins (v. 6). (Cf. 1 Tim 1.17; 6.15-16).
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Hebrews 1.8 presents God the Father identifying Jesus as God since it reads, “But of the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, is forever and ever.’”	This text is complicated since Heb 1.8-9 is a quotation from Ps 45.6-7 in the LXX, and it appears here in a catena of seven OT quotations (Heb 1.5-13) that may have had wide use when this was written. While the psalmist addresses “the king” (v. 1) as God (Heb. elohim), rabbis claim it is hyperbole, insisting he wouldn’t view a man as God. Plus, both texts have grammatical difficulties. And v. 9 presents God saying to Jesus, “God, your God, has anointed you.” Moreover, if the author believed Jesus was God, most of his book is a superfluous argument for Jesus’ superiority over angels, Moses, and others.
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1 John 5.20 is translated by most versions, or similarly so, “And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life.” The pronoun “This” (Gr. houtos) refers to the previous, nearest antecedent—“Jesus Christ”—so that this text calls Jesus “the true God.”	There is no evidence that ancient Greek grammar had this rule as does modern English. So, the author more likely intended “This” to refer to “him who is true.” The next phrase, “in his Son,” indicates that “him who is true” is God the Father, which some versions clarify with “even in his Son” (KJV, NIV). This interpretation is supported by Jesus calling the Father “the only true God” in John 17.3.

For more information about the above texts, we recommend Kermit Zarley’s 600-page book,The Restitution of Jesus Christ. It treats each of these scriptures and more in considerable depth. Also, see his fifty, two-page articles on these and other Bible texts, which represent condensations of his book, at his website. Kermit is a founding member of Christians for One God, which he named.

THE HOLY SPIRIT IS NOT A PERSON

During the early centuries of Christianity, there was no consensus among church bishops and scholars as to whether the Holy Spirit was a person (Gr. hypostasis). Many Christians ever since have wondered about this. But church fathers did arrive at a consensus about this during the late fourth century. It was that the Holy Spirit is a full-fledged Person and one of the three members of the Godhead: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

So, when Trinitarians try to prove that the Bible says the Holy Spirit is one of the three persons of a supposed triune God, that is, the Godhead, they are first compelled to prove that the Holy Spirit is a person. We CFOG members do not believe that the Holy Spirit is an actual person, and the following remarks represent our brief response to this issue.

The Holy Spirit (=the Spirit of God) is Not a Person Because:

• The Holy Spirit is not a person distinct from God, but God’s Spirit manifesting [God's] presence and power.
• The Holy Spirit is to God what a human spirit is to a human since humans are made in the image of God.
• Persons have names. God’s name is YHWH. Jesus has his name. But the Holy Spirit does not have a name.
• The NT often says God and Jesus ... in heaven without ever mentioning the Holy Spirit.
• Holy Spirit pronouns in Greek NT can mean “it.” Translator bias is in Eng. Bibles with “he.” See Jn 16.4-14.
• All salutations in Paul’s 13 NT letters mention God the Father and Jesus Christ, but never the Holy Spirit.
• The NT never exhorts people to believe in, pray to, or worship the Holy Spirit, or tells of anyone doing so.
• The Revelation has heavenly scenes of angels praising God and Jesus without mentioning the Holy Spirit.
• Though God is spirit, the Bible often ascribes body parts to God, yet it never does so of the Holy Spirit.
• Two people lied to the Holy Spirit (Ac 5.3-4), thus to God, but that doesn’t mean the Holy Spirit is God.
• Early Greek NT manuscripts had all capitals. Thus, English Bibles capitalizing Holy Spirit is translator bias.
• Jews don’t capitalize “holy spirit” because they rightly deny that it is a separate entity/person from God.
• As with God’s word and wisdom, the Bible personifying holy spirit as speaking doesn’t indicate a person.
• Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit, yet he is “the Son of God” (Luke 1.35) not the Son of the Holy Spirit.

All the above articles were taken from:

http://christiansforonegod.com/

Looking at JESUS! A Response to the Oneness Faith by Jesavee

Looking at JESUS! A Response to the Oneness Faith

A friend of mine just brought up a lovely point concerning Jesus Christ our Lord. Some people believe that Jesus Christ is the literal body of God. Scriptures give clarity that Jesus is the beloved Son of God and not just His "flesh" or "body" without a separate will from the Father as taught by some.

Let me show you something: John 14:8-9 Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us. 9Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?

You might know where I am going with this, and it is good that you do. Some people interpret this as meaning that if they saw Jesus they were literally looking at the Father. Jesus himself clarifies that this is not the case in a most straight forward fashion. Here is what our Lord Messiah Jesus said:

John 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

If Jesus was the "flesh" or literal "body" of God, then to see him, would be looking directly at God's shape, and to hear him would be literally hearing the voice of the Father. However again Jesus told them that they neither had heard the voice of the Father at anytime, nor seen the shape of the Father in the book of John.
This should be considered in the resulting interpretation of John 14:8-9.

The LORD [YAHWEH] said to Moses that he (Moses) would see his back parts, but his (YAHWEH's) face will not be seen, and we know indeed Moses saw God's back parts because He (GOD) said that he would see them. According to John 5:37 those "back parts" were not in view when Jesus was in view, because they were looking right at Jesus as demonstrated in John but they had not seen the Father's shape. Here is what Moses saw back in the book of Exodus:

Exodus 33:21-23 21And YAHWEH said, Behold, there is a place by me, and thou shalt stand upon a rock: 22And it shall come to pass, while my glory passeth by, that I will put thee in a clift of the rock, and will cover thee with my hand while I pass by: 23And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen.

Jesus truly is the only begotten Son of God, the Father. He told the woman in the book of John to tell them something that I believe is very "telling":

John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

There is a reason why Jesus lifted up his eyes to heaven [John 17.1].

Matthew 23:9 And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven.

Even so, that voice, from the one that was pleased with Jesus Christ was from HEAVEN.

Mark 1:11 And there came a voice from heaven, saying, Thou art my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

Our high priest Jesus Christ has passed into the heavens. He is able to save those that come to God by him. He is in the presence of God for us. Our God is not a high priest, but Jesus our Lord Messiah, His Son is one indeed.

Hebrews 4:14 Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

Hebrews 9:24 For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:

Hebrews 7:25 Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.

The Second Man by Jesavee

The Second Man

I agree Jesus is our Lord from heaven, meaning that he came from God, and that is great news. It is the reason why he is called the Son of God. His Father is our Father, and his God is our God, because he himself is not the Father. We have only one Father. Jesus is our Lord and savior because God our Savior sent him to be one for us. The Father gave him.

John 3:2 The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.

John 16:29-33 His disciples said unto him, Lo, now speakest thou plainly, and speakest no proverb. 30Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest forth from God. 31Jesus answered them, Do ye now believe? 32Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me. 33These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world.

Jesus our Master called them "brethren" in Matthew 23:8-9, and he said one is your Father, which is in heaven. He said this while he was on the earth talking to them.

John 15:26 But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:

The Father is called the Father for a reason. He is the FATHER.

The verse said this: 1 Corinthians 15:47 The first man is of the earth, earthy; the second man is the Lord from heaven. There is an extremely important comparison being made in 1 Corinthians 15:47. It should be considered in your interpretation.

The first part of the verse says:"The first man is of the earth, earthy;"

Here are some sure facts about Adam:
1.Adam was the son of God. God created him directly. (Luke 3:38)
2.Adam was created from the dust of the earth, and through him came sin.
3.He is from the earth, earthly.
4.By Adam there came sin.
5.Last but not least Adam was human..

Genesis 2:7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.

Here are some sure facts about Jesus Christ our Lord:
1.Jesus was/is the Son of God. God created him directly. (Luke 1:35)
2.Jesus was not created from the earth, like Adam was. Jesus was actually begotten, made of a woman.
God was/is his Father (as Luke 1:35 demonstrates beautifully).
Yes God's only BEGOTTEN Son. He is definitely unique.
3.Jesus was human, except now there is a difference. Jesus was OBEDIENT to the Father unlike ADAM who was the human that brought sin. (John 15:10)
4.By Jesus came eternal life.(Romans 5:21)
5.God raised the human Jesus from the dead. God has highly exalted him and given him a name that is above every name, and there is no other name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved. He is our High Priest that continues always saving those that come to God by him. Jesus is the head of the body, which is the church.

There is a reason why Adam is called the first man and Jesus our Lord Messiah is called the second man, as you may notice in the above comparisons.

The phraseology of "son of God" consistently is used in regards to beings that are not God, the Father in scriptures. Because the Father is not a son, but the Father.‎

1 John 3:2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.
Yes God, He is the God of all. Through Jesus Christ our Lord, He has begotten us again into a lively hope, since through the first man came sin! Now we have the beautiful hope of resurrection of life by the second man. We can be joint-heirs with his Son Jesus Christ our Lord!! That is extremely good news beyond reason!!!

Romans 8:17 And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together.

God is not heir to anything, because God is the Father, the only true God. God is not Christ, and Christ is not God. Jesus Christ is the only begotten Son of God. God was in Christ yes. God was not Christ himself. It does not mean that God himself was contained in Christ the man. The Father of Jesus, and our Father, was in heaven and is in heaven. I know that "God was in Christ" does not mean that Jesus was literally God, his Father, the only true God, because..

Jesus himself told the woman I ascend to my Father, and your Father. "...ascend to my Father"

Jesus himself said his Father is the only true God. Only means unique, and is a strong confirmation that his Father is indeed the only ONE God. Jesus is the Son of the Father, who is the ONE God.

Ephesians 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

Even so Peter wasn't thinking Jesus was God in Acts 2. He said Jesus was a man approved of God.

There are many traditions in the world today. But is the doctrine you are teaching found to be taught in the scriptures? If you are of the Oneness faith is there a passage that says that Jesus and his Father are the one God, or that Jesus and his Father are one individual/being? If you are of the faith that teaches the Doctrine of the Trinity where is it in the scriptures that states that the three persons of the Trinity are the one true God? Which passage states that God is ONE group of three persons (Trinity)?

If your tradition is a new one? There might be an issue. Paul said this: 2 Thessalonians 2:15 Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle. Should they have been expecting a new revelation? Where did Paul or anyone else specify this? Paul says: 2 Thessalonians 1:2 Grace unto you, and peace, from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. 1 John 1:3 says: That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.

Jesus is the Image of God by Jesavee

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You might be thinking but what about 1 Timothy 3:16? One might say, "It says the word "God" in the KJV so that must mean God himself appeared in the flesh."

OK many people do not like this but God's inspired word is true, and the original manuscripts in their original form are completely accurate. However in 1 Timothy 3:16 according to the context of the scriptures and written word, that this was "translated" into English from, there is an obvious mistranslation.

I will show you this here, but I ask you if you ever have time, because it doesn't hurt to study it, to please research the Greek of this text on your own time in addition to what I show you here. You must confirm things for yourself. Otherwise anyone can tell you basically anything and just say, "Yes just have faith that its right, for it is Biblical" Just because someone says something is Biblical whatever it may be, doesn't mean it is actually is Biblical or true... seek God for clarity on this.

The word "God" is not in the original Greek text. Have you ever wondered why some of the new translations don't have that word in them when you get to this particular verse?

Examples: ...

English Standard Version (©2001) Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.

New American Standard Bible (©1995) By common confession, great is the mystery of godliness: He who was revealed in the flesh, Was vindicated in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Proclaimed among the nations, Believed on in the world, Taken up in glory.

Aramaic Bible in Plain English (©2010) And this Mystery of Righteousness is truly great, which was revealed in the flesh and was justified in The Spirit; He appeared to Angels and was preached among the Gentiles; He was trusted in the world and he ascended into glory.

Douay-Rheims Bible And evidently great is the mystery of godliness, which was manifested in the flesh, was justified in the spirit, appeared unto angels, hath been preached unto the Gentiles, is believed in the world, is taken up in glory.

English Revised Version And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness; He who was manifested in the flesh, justified in the spirit, seen of angels, preached among the nations, believed on in the world, received up in glory.

Now ask yourself, did God ascend to his God? Did the Father ascend to his Father? Does the Father have a Father? How then is he the Father if he indeed ever had a Father of himself?

Jesus Christ is who ascended and was manifested according to scriptures, and context shows substantially that he, Jesus the Christ, is the Son of the living God, he is not the Father (the Father is the only true God).

John 20:17 tells us that Jesus is the one that was received up into glory. For he indeed was "taken" up. ¹⁷Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

To reiterate: "I (Jesus himself) ascend unto MY Father (the only true God), and your Father (the only true God); and to my God (the only true God), and your God (the only true God).

Yes I repeat Jesus himself was "TAKEN". Please pardon the caps they are only for emphasis, my intent is the most politest, please bear with me.

Acts 1:11 Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven.

Jesus was CARRIED into heaven! Luke 24:51 And it came to pass, while he blessed them, he was parted from them, and carried up into heaven.

So again I ask anyone who is reading this these questions in regards to 1 Timothy 3:16.

Who was carried into heaven? Who ascended into glory? Who was manifested so that he might destroy the works of the devil? Who ascended to his God and our God, to his Father and our Father?

Who is this wonderful individual?
It is none other than Jesus the Christ. The Son of the living God. The Just One!

Here is a site that might help you get further information concerning the Greek text of scriptures. Its great for beginners. For I am not so knowledgeable and this one is helpful to me. The scriptures are so valuable that they are worth the study!!!!!!!! (Beyond reason, they are valuable, and should be studied.)

http://biblos.com/1_timothy/3-16.htm

So back to the main point! There is indeed a distinction between Jesus the Christ our Lord, and the one God, who is his Father, that sent him.

Notice the popular verse 1 John 5:20. This is widely popular with the Trinitarian and Oneness perspectives, as they believe it proves directly that the the Son is truly God as well as the Father is truly God. The Trinitarian perspective believes they are two separate persons who are in a group with another that is called a Trinity, the Oneness perspective believes Jesus and his Father are the same individual, with no distinction however. The Oneness perspective believes that Jesus did not have a will of his own, and is literally the body (garment of flesh, a fleshly robe) of God.

OK so here is the verse which is a beautiful one to say the least:

1 John 5:20

²⁰And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.

Now notice the phrase "This is the true God, and eternal life," comes immediately after the words "Son Jesus Christ". That is what people zoom in on automatically, and practically drop the whole meaning of the verse in their great excitement to believe that the Son of God is God himself, or the 2nd person/individual of a Trinity (a who in a what).

Let's look more closely at this beautiful, thoroughly informative verse. In fact let me add a little context to it, to spice things up!

1 John 5:19-20 ¹⁹And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness. ²⁰And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.

OK are you familiar with fractions? Fractions can be simplified. So can this verse, if we just "break it down" so it is easier to understand. Verse 19 says that we know that we are of God. OK obviously it is talking about the one God without a doubt here in this particular verse.

Now lets go to verse 20, and it begins, "...And we know that the Son of God is come.." OK there is no mistake who the Son of God is that is come! Who is he? Jesus the Christ our Lord. The one that Peter said was the Son of the living God. So what did the Son of God do? Because the verse says that he, the Son of God, did something.

"...and hath given us an understanding,"

OK. This is majorly important. An actual understanding has been given of something. This means that it is not a mystery. Something that one understands is not a mystery, because if it was a mystery there would not be an understanding about it. Unless of course you understand that you don't understand it, and its a mystery. But that is not what its talking about here. The Son of God is come, and has given (he seriously gave it) us an understanding. Now what kind of benefit was this "understanding" to give us? What did it accomplish???? Would Jesus come and give us an understanding without a purpose? I personally do not think so.

For it says: "...that we may know him that is true." Now that is really nice of the Son of God to come and give us an understanding so that we may know him that is true. The "him" that is true, is actually the one that Jesus is come and given us an understanding about. So who is this "him", is this "him" actually Jesus himself? Did Jesus come to give us an understanding of himself? Please reflect on that question and consider the scriptures.

For it says: "...and we are in him that is true," OK we are getting to the "nitty gritty" so to speak:) We are actually in "him" that is true". There is that "him" again. So again who exactly is this him? Is it really Jesus, the Son of God like most people say? Well lets see if the verse will answer the question for us! I believe the verse is right, even above millions of people multiplied by infinity.

It says, "even in his Son Jesus Christ." Alright I don't know about you, but this automatically makes me think of 2 Timothy 2:15. So we have found out an obvious fact about the "him" that is true. Do you know what that fact is about the "him"?? Well you don't have to give up. I will tell you what it is. The "him" that is true has a SON. Let me show you so you will see it for yourself:

"..we are in HIM that is true, even in HIS Son Jesus Christ."

OK. I want to tell you more about this fact that we learned concerning the "him" that is true. The "him" that is true has a Son, and I'm not talking about just any son. The Son of the "him" that is true is our Lord Jesus Christ. For we are in "him" that is true, even in "his" Son Jesus Christ! Now answer one of my earlier questions, and I'll even add more questions to go along with it.

Is Jesus, the Son of God, the "him" that is true? If your answer is yes, please answer this one too. Does Jesus, the Son of God, have a Son named Jesus who is the Christ? I sincerely hope your answer is at least NO to that one. Now another question I have for you. Who exactly is Jesus the Son OF? Because the answer of this will indeed tell us who the "him" that is true actually is. ALRIGHT I WILL ANSWER IT!!!!

Jesus is the Son of GOD, the FATHER. (The caps are to express my sheer excitement that I wanted you to realize I had while typing this). The Father is the "him" that is true. In fact THIS is the TRUE GOD and ETERNAL LIFE.

I will show you something very wonderful. Jesus knew this also. He knew that his Father was the only true God. I will show you again that this is true:

John 17 ¹These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: ²As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. ³And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

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