Shalom! My name is Adam Pastor

Welcome to ADONI MESSIAH which means
"My Lord Messiah" -
a fitting epithet to who Jesus (or Yeshua) is!

Here, I attempt to present the Apostolic Truths according to the Scriptures, that there is
One GOD, the Father, namely, YAHWEH,
and One Lord, GOD's only begotten Son,
Yeshua the Messiah.

And that one day YAHWEH will send His Son back to Earth to inaugurate the Everlasting Kingdom of GOD


Friday, May 01, 2015

Another Appeal to Oneness believers

What follows are three articles found on the Net proclaiming the truth of the One God and the man Christ Jesus, the One God's Son.
They were written by the same author who used to be a Oneness believer! Whose eyes has been opened.
I have made a few amendments to the original articles. So these are not my original work.

May the ONE TRUE GOD continue to open the eyes of Oneness people that they may see His Son, our one Mediator, the man Christ Jesus. Amen!

The Name of God is Jesus?

John 14:9 I have come in my Father's name  Jesus Christ

There is no doubt this scripture has been read by many Oneness Pentecostals and there is also no doubt to them this scripture alone teaches that Jesus is the name of the Father! SO in Oneness Theology this proves Jesus is God but does it REALLY? Was Jesus saying or stating that he himself was the Father manifested in flesh? Again according to Oneness Theology this is one of their proof scriptures as well as a handful of many others they use in their arsenal to prove Jesus is God.

I myself once used this scripture myself, after all what else could it possibly mean? Jesus was saying that he came in his Father's name thus proving Jesus is the Father and this is what I once believed for over twenty years. To me at the time as well as many Oneness believers it made the most sense. But do we go by what makes sense or by what OTHER scriptures say? Should we not use the scriptures to interpret the scriptures? Can the Bible indeed interpret itself? It should because we are told after all it is the inspired word of God, right? I am a firm believer that it definitely is. Therefore I believe the Bible should explain itself to us if we allow it to. What I am saying is we should not be reading it through the lens of preconceived ideals or doctrines. That is something I did for a long time while I was once a Oneness believer myself but I no longer do that any longer.

Rather ....
  I Became A Berean

Act 17:11  These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind,
and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so

John 5:39  Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. 

What scriptures could they possibly be? Why it is none other than the Old Testament. Do we forget the Old Testament was the only "bible" that first century believers had? With that in mind I would like to present to you an article written by JB because I think it ties right in to the subject matter at hand; so I hope you enjoy it.

God HIMSELF, revealed His personal Name to Moses in:
Exodus 3:15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations. 
The Hebrew word for "LORD" here is YHWH (YaHWeH). The name of God (YHWH) is known as the Tetragrammaton. God said that this would be HIS NAME FOREVER and to ALL GENERATIONS. This is confirmed by numerous verses:
Psalm 68:4 Sing unto God, sing praises to his name: extol him that rideth upon the heavens by his name JAH, and rejoice before him. 
JAH [or rather YAH], is the shortened version of YHWH which was common among the JEWS. The "J" comes from the English translators as, at this point, there was no "Y" in the English language. Further proof of this is the word that most church people say ALL THE TIME, but really have no idea WHAT they are saying exactly: Hallelujah. "Hallel" is the Hebrew word for "praise." "u" means "to" in Hebrew, and "JAH" is the abbreviated form of the personal name of God: YaH-WeH. So when you put that all together you get: HALLEL-U-YAH. And when you do so you are praising God according to His ACTUAL NAME, by saying: "praise to YaH" 
ALL of this was lost in translation, in that in the original Hebrew text the name of God (YHWH), appears 6,828 times. However, the translators, ... translated God's Name as "LORD" instead of what it actually reads in the Hebrew text: YHWH. 
Another verse that teaches us that God's name is YHWH is: 
Malachi 3:6 For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed. 
Mind you that the word "LORD" here was YHWH in the original Hebrew text. So, God says, "I am YHWH, I change not;" Here again, God is letting us know that His name will NEVER change.

Jesus said in John 5:43 that he had come in HIS FATHER’S NAME. Most people mistake this to mean that the name of the Father is JESUS, BECAUSE they never knew another name existed, in that it was HIDDEN by the anti-Semitic translators. However, it's quite the opposite. Jesus' name [in Hebrew i.e. Yeshua] means "YaH is salvation." 
So, Jesus is literally bearing the name of his FATHER and his GOD: YaHWeH.

...Jesus makes the following statements in:

Revelation 3:12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.

So, from this verse we know from Jesus HIMSELF, that Jesus has a GOD. And, Jesus has a name that will change at some point.

My questions to those who believe God’s name is Jesus, would be:

1) If Jesus IS the ONE GOD as many claim, then why is Jesus stating here,
4 times, that HE HAS A GOD?

2) In that God's name, as given by HIMSELF is YHWH, and He stated EMPHATICALLY that His Name would NEVER change, yet many believe that the name of God is Jesus; then why is it that Jesus said his name is going to change at some point?

This obviously contradicts the false claim that the name of God is Jesus.

Who is THE LORD?

Recalling my early days when I attended a United Pentecostal Church in the early 90's I would sometimes wonder to myself when I came across certain passages especially when the scripture would mention the word Lord. I knew in the Old Testament that God was called "Lord" and of course in the New Testament I also knew Jesus was called "Lord". Looking back my mind was already programmed to connect Jesus and God together since I was taught that "God manifested in flesh" [1 Timothy 3:16] meant that God became Jesus in the New Testament so therefore reading God being called Lord and Jesus being called Lord really meant that they were the same! BUT I still would sometimes have a doubt when I would run into these scriptures in the New Testament.

Mat 22:41 (BBE)  Now while the Pharisees were together, Jesus put a question to them, saying, 42 What is your opinion of the Christ? whose son is he? They say to him, The Son of David. 43 He says to them, How then does David in the Spirit give him the name of Lord, saying, 44 The Lord said to my Lord, Be seated at my right hand, till I put under your feet all those who are against you? 45 If David then gives him the name of Lord, how is he his son? 46 And no one was able to give him an answer, and so great was their fear of him, that from that day no one put any more questions to him. 

And neither was I. 

To be honest I would scratch my head and wonder the same thing. How about you? Have you ever wondered if Jesus is Lord and God is called Lord how can they be one Lord yet it is obvious they are two? Right?

Jesus called Lord.........

God is called Lord........

This MUST mean they are one says the church world; after all Jesus said in John 10:30 "I and my Father are one". 

What we really do not realize and I know I never thought much about is the fact that: we are truly at the mercy of the Bible translators and here is what I mean.
Looking at Psalms 110:1 the most quoted Psalm [in fact the most quoted OT verse] in the NT by the way..

Psalm 110:1 {KJV}  The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. 

Perhaps you never paid attention? Notice the word LORD is all caps...the "my Lord" is spelled and punctuated like it is found throughout the NT in most Bibles. Now look here at the NRSV version

The LORD said unto my lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

LORD is in all caps but notice the [2nd] "lord"  the L is not capitalized!!!! Would you believe this is the way it should be read in all the New Testament in the many versions??? 

Did I mention we are at the mercy of Bible translators????????????

Imagine now if THEY would have only done the correct rendering of this verse that is so quoted in the NT [some 23 times]. I doubt we would have the mass confusion that we have today among the growing 30,000 denominations across the globe. Had I only known what I know today {don't we all} perhaps years ago I would have had a grip on what I do today, regarding the difference between LORD and lord...

I was brought up believing the KING JAMES BIBLE was THE Bible {i.e. the closest to the original} so I was told; I still use this version today in my studies but I also know this translation {and this is what it is: a translation} was heavily influenced by Trinitarian scholars and they translated with a bias in mind that God is a Trinity. Being that as it may there is no doubt that these translators translated with their bias understanding and perhaps did not like how the English word "lord" may seem to "be-little" our Lord Jesus Christ. But it is curious to me how they covered up the use of the word "lord" in the New Testament except when it came to speak about the Messiah they inserted the capital L on the word Lord to make it seem of more importance. If you try and do a study on the word Lord in the New Testament and you try and compare between where Jesus speaks and God speaks you will not find much help because the word "Lord" has [the same Greek word] "Kurios". The translators made it a little interesting for us all to figure out and BTW you will not find much help using a Strong's Concordance either. BUT if you keep in mind Psalm 110:1 and have a understanding of the difference between LORD and lord it should not be hard to understand. Below is some scriptures using the word Lord or Kurios.

Christ is Lord/kurios, but “Lord/kurios” does not necessarily mean “GOD.” 

“Lord” (the Greek word is kurios) is a masculine title of respect and nobility, and it is used many times in the New Testament. To say that Jesus is God because the Bible calls him “Lord” is very poor scholarship. “Lord” is used in many ways in the Bible. Others beside God and Jesus are called “Lord.”

    Property [vineyard] owners are called “Lord” (Matt. 20:8, “owner” = kurios)..
    Heads of households are called “Lord” (Mark 13:35, “owner”, “master” = kurios).
    Servant owners are called “Lord” (Matt. 10:24, “master” = kurios).
    Husbands are called “Lord” (1 Pet. 3:6, “master” = kurios).
    A son calls his father “Lord” (Matt. 21:30, “sir” = kurios).
    The Roman Emperor i.e. Agrippa is called “Lord” (Acts 25:26, “His Majesty” = kurios).
    Roman authorities i.e. Pilate is called “Lord” (Matt. 27:63, “sir” = kurios).
    [I will add John 12.21 - Philip is called  “Lord” (“sir” = kurios)]

The problem these verses cause to anyone who says Christ is God because he is called “Lord” is immediately apparent—many others beside Christ would also be God!

So who is THE LORD i.e. in Capitals? As seen in the OT?
It is none other than the one God who is our Creator and Heavenly Father

However the LORD GOD is clearly distinguished from the “lord” Jesus

1Co 8:1  Now about things offered to images: we all seem to ourselves to have knowledge. Knowledge gives pride, but love gives true strength. 
1Co 8:2  If anyone seems to himself to have knowledge, so far he has not the right sort of knowledge about anything; 
1Co 8:3  But if anyone has love for God, God has knowledge of him. 
1Co 8:4  So, then, as to the question of taking food offered to images, we are certain that an image is nothing in the world, and that there is no God but one. 
1Co 8:5  For though there are those who have the name of gods, in heaven or on earth, as there are a number of gods and a number of lords, 
1Co 8:6  There is for us only one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we are for him; and one lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we have our being through him.

My Christian friend, if Paul wanted to write and say "to us [Christians] there is one God who is Father,Son,Holy Ghost;" I believe he could have had he wanted us to know that BUT he did not. Neither did he say "there is one God who is Jesus"; rather:

  • He lets us know who God is......THE FATHER..the ONE LORD of the Bible, of Deut. 6.4...
  • Jesus is the human Lord of lords over all the Kings of the earth; who is set at the LORD GOD's right hand

How Human Was Jesus? 

How human was Jesus? Oneness believers will tell you that Jesus was 100% human but they do not stop there because they will also tell you that he was 100% God. Oneness believers are not alone when it comes to that understanding because the opposite of the Oneness view is the  Trinitarian view and they too will tell you almost the same thing, because contrary to popular opinion both Oneness and Trinitarian is from the same stock! But both groups just describe God differently. So let me ask YOU the reader about what YOU think?


I know most would testify that Jesus Christ was indeed a human being; in fact over 150 times Jesus is called a man.The Greek definition for the word man is ANTHROPOS which means a human being.
It is interesting to note that there were plenty other people mentioned  in the New Testament that were also called  "a man" or "man." And what is interesting when we read the scriptures we have no problem understanding the fact that the word MAN means MAN when speaking of those others. As believers of the Bible we dare not add to the meaning of the written word do we? But let me ask you, a question: Why is it then when it comes to Jesus Christ the meaning of the word MAN some how changes?

For many Christians Jesus has to be MORE than a man or else HOW did he do the things he did.

  • So they reason as follows: 
  • Jesus did the miracles because He was God; 
  • he forgave sin because He was God; 
  • he walked on water because He was God 
  • and on it goes; every miraculous event Jesus did was credited to the fact that He was God. 
So I wonder dear reader is this what you believe or was taught? Does the scriptures attest to this? It is the opinion of this author that the scriptures do not in fact teach this, even though it is believed among the majority of Christ's followers.

Jesus Had To Be A Human Being

What many may not realize is the fact that Jesus HAD TO BE a human being for many reasons. Jesus is indeed the son of God but just as important he needed to be a human to fulfill the requirements of :-

  • Messiah
  • Son of God
  • Prophet
  • High Priest
  • Kinsman Redeemer
  • Brother
Just to name a few! 
But even more important is the following fact that so many overlook:
Adam who was the first MAN created by God was a sinless human being before the fall. 

Have you ever really considered this? Think about it this way. The scriptures teach that it was BY MAN that sin entered (Romans 5:12)  same Greek word here
ANTHROPOS (human being)
  BY MAN many were made righteous. By ANTHROPOS (human being) many were made righteous.

Did you catch that reader friend? BY A HUMAN BEING this was done.
So why cannot the Oneness believers accept this?

They do but in their mind they think it was the flesh part or the human nature of Jesus that did the dying because after all God cannot die. ... In the Oneness mind they believe there is not one man good enough who could die for the sin of mankind; so therefore in their thinking, God who is holy is the only one who could save man; therefore God had to become a man in order that man could be saved. But they forget what we covered earlier. Adam was a sinless man who according to the Bible is responsible for the sin problem that was brought into the world (Romans 5)

So what they are not considering is this "if a sinless man can bring sin into the world then why cannot a sinless man take away the sin?"
Why does it take MORE than
man/ANTHROPOS to be the perfect sacrifice?

When a Lamb was offered for the atonement was the Lamb not chosen from among its own?

  • Deut 18:18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.Deu 18:19  And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.
  • Hebrews 2:17  Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
  • Romans 1:3   Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
  • [I will add: 1 Peter 1:19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:]

What is very ironic is popular Apostolic Bible teacher Ken Raggio has stated the following in the past 

“The Father did not send a substitute to earth. HE came down. That was Emmanuel in the manger. God with us. Not a third of God. All of God.” —  Ken Raggio

To the Oneness crowd a big hearty AMEN would be shouted but from the very pages of the Bible there would be silence. God did not have to become a man.

There is not one scripture that teaches God wanted to, needed to or even would become a man or even His very own Messiah.
[I believe the following image would complement the above article]