Answered from A CHRISTIAN UNITARIAN PERSPECTIVE
Trinitarian Arguments
Claim 1. Jesus is God
because he claimed to be
Well Jesus
nowhere made any explicit claim to be God.However Trinitarians
desperately search through scriptures with the sole intent of trying to find a
claim somewhere (begging the question). They often assert that in John 8 Jesus
claimed to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob by saying in verse 58 "before
Abraham was I am." They assume this is a reference to Exodus 3 where God speaks
to Moses from the burning bush. Unfortunately nothing in the context is about
Moses and the burning bush story, rather it is talking about Abraham who lived
hundreds of years earlier. Secondly, John doesn’t even use the same Greek words
used in Exodus 3 in the Septuagint (LXX). Trinitarians should know better than
that, Jesus is plainly distinguished from the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
Act 3:13 The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the
God of our fathers, glorified his servant Jesus, whom you delivered over and
denied in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release him.
Peter explicitly says Jesus is the SERVANT of the
God of the fathers. The idea that in John 8 Jesus tries to underhandedly
claim to be that God is absurd in light of the rest of scripture. Peter made
this distinction repeatedly.
Act 5:30 The God of our fathers raised
Jesus, whom you killed by hanging him on a tree.
The idea that Jesus
claimed to be the very God of the Fathers in light of these explicit verses
saying he is in fact distinct from the God of the Fathers, shows the depths of
desperation of Trinitarians. Now get this folks, Jesus actually did refer to the
story of the burning bush account explicitly in Mark 12:26,27
Mark 12:26
And as for the dead being raised, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the
passage about the bush, how God spoke to him, saying, 'I am the God of Abraham,
and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob'?
Mark 12:27 He is not God of the
dead, but of the living. You are quite wrong."
Jesus here refers back to this event and makes no
mention of having been present, or making any claim to be the very God that
spoke to Moses. Jesus mentions how God spoke to Moses, and then Jesus says of
God, "HE is not God of the dead but of the living." So Jesus
refers to God as a singular personal being, someone other than himself by using
the term "HE". Notice he didn't say, "we are not" he said, "he is not"
exposing the false idea that God is multiple persons. Notice also Jesus did not
say "have you not read in the book of Moses in the passage about the bush how I
spoke to him saying". Jesus didn't say "I spoke to him" or "we spoke to him" but
HE spoke to him, showing that he was not present or speaking to Moses then.
Stephen referred to the burning bush story and he, like Jesus, made no
mention of Jesus being present and certainly no mention of Jesus being the God
that spoke to Moses then (Acts 7:30-35). Stephen simply refers to God and later
speaks of Jesus as a righteous man that God exalted to his right hand.
Act 7:56 And he said, "Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of
Man standing at the right hand of God."
So the Trinitarians want us to
believe that in John 8, although Moses and the burning bush story aren't even
mentioned, that Jesus is claiming to be the very God that spoke to Moses, in light of the fact that Peter plainly distinguished Jesus from
that God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, calling Jesus the servant of this
God. In light of that and in light of the FACT that both Jesus and
Stephen referred specifically to the burning bush story and both of them made no
mention of Jesus being present, nor making any claim that he was the God that
was speaking then.
Instead Jesus refers to that God as someone other
than himself referring to him as HE. Jesus plainly said his Father is the “only
true God” and that he (Jesus) has the same God we do (John 17:3, 20:17). Clearly
the Trinitarian’s claims are desperate and unfounded. Jesus was saying that
Messiah existed from the beginning as part of Gods purpose and plan and that the
patriarchs were aware of this. Jesus was foreknown by God (1Pet 1:20) and slain
before the world began (Rev 13:8) in God's pre-existent plan. However he was not
alive as a person prior to his creation in Mary’s womb.
Claim 2. Jesus is God because he is
titled Lord
This is confusing because of the way the
English word "lord" was added to the Old Testament in place of the "sacred
name". Since lord is used for God in the OT and applied to Jesus in the NT
people mistake them as the same being. The English word "lord" however used to
be a common title back when it was placed in the bible in the 1600's. Lord meant
the equivalent of "owner" or "boss" today. Ever heard the term "drug-lord" or
"land-lord", even today in Great Britain there is the "House of Lords". So the English word "lord" had no direct connection to
deity, but over the years in Christianity it came to be used that way.
Today the word is archaic and is hardly used outside of religious circles, at
least in America. Anyways the bible makes clear that while Jesus is Lord, it is
because he was made that by his God and Father
Act 2:36 Let all the
house of Israel therefore know for certain that God has made him both Lord and
Christ, this Jesus whom you crucified."
This was done for God's glory
Phi 2:9
Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above
every name,
Phi 2:10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in
heaven and on earth and under the earth,
Phi 2:11 and every tongue confess
that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Because Jesus
was obedient to God and humbly carried out his messianic mission, God exalted
him and gave him the name above all names so that Jesus
should be Lord and Christ, TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER. Jesus wasn't
eternally in this position rather he was appointed this by his God because of
his obedience and faithfulness. So Jesus is Lord and is plainly distinguished
from God in the greetings of the epistles. Christians believe in 1 God and 1 Lord,
not a 3-person God.
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the
Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus
Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.
Claim 3. Jesus is God because he received
worship
Well the bible says Jesus received worship
but the bible also says King David did. The word translated as worship can also
be translated reverence/honor/adore/homage. Just as
King David received it as God's anointed King, Jesus does more so as the King of the Kingdom of God and Messiah, Son of the Living
God, Son of David. The Greek word translated "worship" and applied to
Jesus is the same Greek word used in the Septuagint [LXX] for what was given to
King David. Either way it doesn't matter because Jesus only receives what God
has appointed for him to receive. Angels were directed to worship/honor/revere
him (Heb 1:6) and he was appointed judge of the world so he can be honored as
God is, essentially giving him a functional equality
with himself (John 5:22,23, Acts 10:42, 17:31). This was all done by God
exalting Jesus not because Jesus is God. Jesus said he would have men "worship"
before his disciples’ feet but that doesn't make them God too!
Rev 3:9
Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and
are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy
feet, and to know that I have loved thee.
Claim 4. Jesus is God because he is called "god"
Similar to the "lord" title. The word "god" isn't a precise
translation but is generally used to mean "mighty, mighty
one, mighty ruler" and is used primarily for God the Father but not exclusively. The word can be applied to non-divine
beings on occasion and the word can even be used as an adjective (Gen 23:6, 2Cor
11:2). Moses was given the title "god" in Exo 4:16,
7:1, also that word is applied to angels and men (2Cor 4:4. Psa 82:6,
John 10:33, Psa 8:5). Since the word "god" being applied to someone doesn't
automatically make him or her the Most High, then pointing to a verse where
Jesus is called "god" doesn't prove anything in light of the evidence presented.
However if angels and men can be called "god" under certain
circumstances then it's not a surprise if Jesus can be also. In Hebrews
1:8,9 Jesus is called "god" but at the same time it makes clear he has a God
above him that is anointing him above his companions/fellows. This passage is
from Psa 45 where it is originally applied to King David. The writer says to
King David
[Some say, it refers to Solomon; either
way,
Psa 45 applied to a
human being!]
Psa 45:1 To the
choirmaster: according to Lilies. A Maskil of the Sons of Korah; a love song. My
heart overflows with a pleasing theme; I address my verses to the king; my
tongue is like the pen of a ready scribe.
Psa 45:2 You are the most
handsome of the sons of men; grace is poured upon your lips; therefore God has
blessed you forever.
Psa 45:3 Gird your sword on your thigh, O mighty
one, in your splendor and majesty!
Psa 45:4 In your majesty ride out
victoriously for the cause of truth and meekness and righteousness; let your
right hand teach you awesome deeds!
Psa 45:5 Your arrows are sharp in the
heart of the king's enemies; the peoples fall under you.
Psa 45:6 Your throne, O God, is forever and ever. The scepter of
your kingdom is a scepter of uprightness;
Psa 45:7 you have loved
righteousness and hated wickedness. Therefore God, your
God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions;
Notice the author is speaking praises upon King David, he says “your
throne o god (King David) … you have loved righteousness and hated wickedness.
Therefore god (King David), your God (The Father) has anointed you with the oil
of gladness beyond your companions.”
Notice this clearly isn’t talking about 2 co-equal,
co-eternal spirit beings. It is talking about a human being
rewarded/exalted above his companions due to his obedience of loving
righteousness and hating wickedness. Just as this passage was originally
written of King David, it can also be applied to Jesus the Son of David, the
Messiah. However being called “god” in this passage does not mean this person is
a co-equal, co-eternal spirit being, it means “mighty one” which is why it is
applied primarily to the Father but also to King David, Moses, Judges of
Israel, ... and others. However if one wants to be stubborn in Heb 1:8,9
and insist the word “god” there is used to mean “supreme eternal being”, then
what you have is 2 gods. The passage doesn’t speak of 2 co-equal, co-eternal
persons making up 1 God but rather it speaks plainly of 2 gods. So this passage
cannot be used to support a trinity or Jesus being co-equal, co-eternal with the
Father.
Also some say Thomas called Jesus God in John 20:28, again if
the understanding of the word "god" is considered then Thomas could have been
saying "my boss and mighty one" or "my master and my mighty ruler/judge". The word "god/theos" can be used in a lesser sense for human
judges/rulers as Jesus pointed out earlier in John's gospel (John 10:34-36).
However John says three verses later that everything he wrote was for the
purpose of convincing us that Jesus is Messiah and Son of God, not written so
that we would believe Jesus is God or a member of a 3 person God!
John 20:31 but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is
the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.
Claim 5. Jesus is God because he forgave
sins
The bible says Jesus was ordained judge and as
judge he was given authority to forgive sins. Jesus said this command he
received from his Father
Mat 9:6 But that you may know that the Son of
Man has authority on earth to forgive sins"--he then said to the
paralytic--"Rise, pick up your bed and go home."
Mat 9:7 And he rose and
went home.
Mat 9:8 When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and they glorified God, who had given such authority to men.
Notice Jesus ability to forgive sins was
an authority given to him. He demonstrated he had this authority by
healing the paralytic showing that God was in fact with him (John 5:22,23,27
Acts 10:42, 17:31). The people watching this glorified God
for giving such authority to a man (the authority to heal and forgive).
They didn’t however think Jesus was God! Also Jesus gave his apostles power to
forgive sins, but that doesn't make them part of a “godhead”.
John 20:22
And when he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them, "Receive the
Holy Spirit.
John 20:23 If you forgive the sins of anyone, they are
forgiven; if you withhold forgiveness from anyone, it is withheld."
Claim 6. Jesus is God because he was
sinless
The bible showed how we needed a lamb
without spot or blemish. This was to foreshadow the idea of a sinless man taking
our place and punishment (Isa 53). Jesus was without sin but that does not make
him God. Adam was without sin for a while too. There
are angels in heaven without sin right now; there are also angels that got
kicked out for sinning. Jesus was the 2nd Adam (Rom 5, 1Cor 15) and remained
faithfully obedient to God's will unlike the first Adam. Jesus did this by
always doing what pleased the Father (John 8:29), and by loving righteousness
and hating iniquity (Heb 1:8,9). Abraham was asked to offer
his Son as a sacrifice to God, God didn't ask Abraham to offer up himself
and lay himself on the altar! God was foreshadowing how he
would offer up his Son. The bible says explicitly God offered up his Son (John
3:16) and sent forth his Son (1John 4:14,15), it does not say God himself would
become a man and suffer and die. God brought forth his Son (Luke 1:35,
Heb 1:5), anointed him with power (Acts 10:38) and oversaw him throughout his
mission to be the Savior of men by being a sinless sacrifice for his "brethren"
(John 8:29, 16:32). This Lamb of God is plainly distinguished from God in the
book of Revelation (Rev 7:10, 14:4,10, 21:22).
Claim 7. Jesus is God because he supposedly created all
things
Well the New Testament explicitly attributes all
creation to God the Father himself...
1Ti 6:13 I charge you in the
presence of God, who gives life to all things, and of Christ Jesus, who in his
testimony before Pontius Pilate made the good confession,
Rev 4:11
"Worthy are you, our Lord and God, to receive glory and honor and power, for you
created all things, and by your will they existed and were created."
Act
4:24 And when they heard it, they lifted their voices together to God and said,
"Sovereign Lord, who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and everything in
them,
Act 14:15 "Men, why are you doing these things? We also are men,
of like nature with you, and we bring you good news, that you should turn from
these vain things to a living God, who made the heaven and the earth and the sea
and all that is in them.
Act 17:24 The God who made the world and
everything in it, being Lord of heaven and earth, does not live in temples made
by man,
Eph 3:9 and to bring to light for everyone what is the plan of
the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things,
Paul says to Timothy that it is God that gives life to all things,
and then distinguishes God from the Messiah Jesus as he always does. Then Paul
speaking to the Greeks in Acts 17, teaches how God has made the world and he
goes on to say this God raised up a man to judge the world (Acts 17:31). John in
Revelation plainly attributes all creation to the one on the throne, the
Lord God, who is distinguished from the lamb that he gives a scroll to in the
next chapter. The disciples pray to God in Acts 4 and pray to God the Father and
attribute creation solely to him. The bible says a singular personal God made
all things alone. Each passage in context describes God as creator and
distinguished from Jesus.
Isa 44:24 Thus says the LORD, your
Redeemer, who formed you from the womb: "I am the LORD, who made all things, who
alone stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth by myself,
Notice the lack of plural terms, a singular personal being is speaking
saying "I, alone, myself." Jesus referred to God the creator as someone other
than himself…
Mat 19:3 And Pharisees came up to him and tested him by
asking, "Is it lawful to divorce one's wife for any cause?"
Mat 19:4 He
answered, "Have you not read that he who created them
from the beginning made them male and female,
Now Jesus here refers back
to creation saying “he who created them”, he doesn't include himself as being
present then or active in the creating process. Instead simply refers back to
God creating and referring to God as HE, a singular personal being who is
someone other than himself. He did not say “we who created them” or “when I made
them." Jesus said something similar here…
Mark 13:19 For in those days
there will be such tribulation as has not been from the beginning of the
creation that God created until now, and never will
be.
Here Jesus again refers to creation saying “from the beginning of
the creation that God created until now”. Once again Jesus makes no mention of
being present then or of actually being a participant in the creating. The same
God he refers to as doing the creating he called “the only true God” and said
was his God and our God (John 17:3, 20:17).
John 1
Well John 1 refers to the
logos being with God, the logos is not a second pre-existent person but
is the utterance/expression and/or reason/motive/purpose of
God. God's word is no more a distinct person from
himself than your word is a distinct person from yourself! Jesus
preexisted in the plan and purpose of God (1Pet 1:20) and this became fulfilled
when Jesus was miraculously created in Mary's womb by God (Matt 1:18, Luke
1:35). The HE/IT that created all things in verse 3 is the
word of God (the word HE in verse 3 was translated as
IT in the first half dozen translations of the English bible before the
KJV). The Greek language attaches a gender to every noun and so when
translated into English, one has to determine whether the noun is a person or
thing and adjust the pronoun (which is ambiguous) accordingly. The logos prior to the KJV (in the Bishop's and Geneva
translations among others) was translated as IT because the translators
correctly understood that the logos is a thing and not a person. The
personified attribute of God was used of God's wisdom in the book of Proverbs;
wisdom is described as a female person being with God during creation (Prov 8)
and other places like Job 12:13. God spoke creation into existence; he didn't
use a second person to do it. His word/plan later became
embodied/manifested when he created his Son. His Son was the
manifestation of God's plan through his teachings that God gave him (John 7:16,
12:49) and through his ministry. God's creative word is not a person.
Heb 11:3 By faith we understand that the universe was created by the
word of God, so that what is seen was not made out of things that are visible.
Psa 33:6 By the word of the LORD the heavens were made, and by the breath of
his mouth all their host.
Notice God's word is described as actual words,
unseen, breath from his mouth, not a person.
An audio teaching on
John 1 can be found here http://focusonthekingdom.org/av.htm
Colossians 1
Colossians 1 is simply a matter of translation.
Col 1:16 for IN him were all things created,
in the heavens and upon the earth, things visible and things invisible, whether
thrones or dominions or principalities or powers; all things have been created
through him, and unto him;
God created all things IN
his Son because his Son is firstborn, heir of all things and the focal point of
God's creation. Paul spoke of God choosing believers IN Christ before the
foundation of the world (Eph 1:4). Since God had this foreknown plan revolving
around his Son (1Pet 1:20) it can be said that God created
everything IN, THROUGH and FOR his Son. Jesus spoke of God alone as
creator (Matt 19:4) and the OT says the same, God created alone (Isa 44:24). The
Greek word translated “BY” in verse 16 in most translations, is translated “IN”
1,874 other places! Jesus is not the creator in this verse. Paul said the same
thing in Ephesians.
Eph 1:20 that he (God) worked in Christ when he
raised him from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly
places,
Eph 1:21 far above all rule and authority and power and dominion,
and above every name that is named, not only in this age but also in the one to
come.
Eph 1:22 And he put all things under his feet and gave him as head
over all things to the church,
Eph 1:23 which is his body, the fullness of
him who fills all in all.
Paul says God put Jesus at his right hand and God
put all these things under his feet. Peter said the same...
1Pe 3:22 who
has gone into heaven and is at the right hand of God, with angels, authorities,
and powers having been subjected to him.
God is the creator of all things and has placed
them under Jesus' authority, which is why Jesus is called the HEIR OF ALL
THINGS! God predestined Christians IN him before the foundation of the world
(Eph 1:4, 2:10).
Hebrews 1
Heb 1:2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he
appointed the heir of all things, through (for) whom also he created the ages.
Hebrews 1 makes clear God spoke by Jesus, God appointed him heir of all
things, God made the ages through/for him, the world to come is for his Kingdom,
God is the creative power here not Jesus.
Heb 1:5 For to which of the
angels did God ever say, "You are my son! Today I have fathered you"? And in
another place he says, "I will be his father and he will be my son."
Verse 5 speaks of God creating Jesus in
Mary’s womb “today I have Fathered/Begotten you”. There goes the Trinitarian
“eternally begotten” concept. There is no eternal God the Son person, Jesus was begotten on a specific day, and as pointed out in the
next part, that day was in the future “I will be his Father and he will be my
Son.” How can God say he WILL BE his Father, if they were eternally in a
Father and Son relationship? And how can there be a eternal Father and Son
relationship in the first place? Trinitarians have no answers. ...
Verses
8-10 therefore are applied to the glorified and exalted Jesus. Verses 8,9 are
about Jesus being rewarded to an exalted state above his companions because of
his obedience. The author then applies a psalm about David to Jesus. Jesus is called “god” but it is equally clear he has a God above
him that is anointing him to this new position as a reward. Clearly the
idea of a multi-person god is absent from this context. In verse 10 the LXX
needs to be consulted. The author of Hebrews has been quoting from the LXX up to
this point. ... This passage is being applied to the
Messiah creating the new heavens and earth in the future age to come of which
the author is speaking.
Heb 2:5 Now it was not to angels that God
subjected the world to come, of which we are speaking.
F.F Bruce says that the LXX indicates that while the suppliant is
addressing God in the first part of the passage, God
responds to the suppliant in verse 23 “He (God) answered him (the suppliant) in
the way of his strength”.
An audio teaching on Hebrews 1 can be
found here http://focusonthekingdom.org/av.htm
Claim 8. Jesus is God because he is
designated Savior
The Old Testament says besides God
there is no savior, the New Testament calls both God and Jesus, savior,
therefore Jesus must be God too. Not quite, had God not sent Jesus, salvation
wouldn't have been possible. God is the sole source but
Jesus is the means/vessel by which God carried out the process. God has
appointed his Son many things, like judge and savior. God has appointed Jesus
the vessel by which he carries these out. Jesus said he did not come of his own
accord (John 8:42), he was sent by God to be the savior; his God and Father is
the source and Jesus humbly carried out his God and Father's will.
If
the President is told that an American embassy has been raided and hostages have
been taken, and if their rescue is based on his decision, then he is the source
of their salvation. Say the president sends in a hostage rescue team and they
are saved from their captors. In this case the president would be the source of
their salvation, but the rescue team are their "saviors" also in that they
physically carried out the rescue. God simply planned to use his Son to carry
out the process, this does not make the Son into God nor does it contradict the
idea that besides or apart from God salvation is not possible.
1Jo
4:14 And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the
Savior of the world.
1Jo 4:15 Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of
God, God abides in him, and he in God.
Right after
saying the Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world, he says we must
confess Jesus is the Son of God, he does not say we are to confess Jesus is God,
the bible doesn't say ANYWHERE to confess Jesus is God!
Trinitarians use the scattershot tactic like a
shotgun. When confronted with the contradictions and inconsistencies in their
beliefs, they blast out their little pellet arguments hoping that the quantity of them will be confusing enough to be
convincing. But when each of these little pellet arguments is given the
slightest scrutiny they are found to be weak and unconvincing in light of the
preponderance of evidence to the opposite. When confronted with the weakness of
any of these arguments the Trinitarian doesn't bother to remove them from their
repertoire they simply shuffle around to another weak
argument. So they just retain bad arguments and save them for a later time
hoping it can be later used against someone that doesn't know better and will be
impressed by it. All of these arguments however are at the expense of
Jesus own teachings and the totality of scripture and are done solely to
preserve a long standing and highly regarded tradition of
men known as the trinity.
Claim 9.
Jesus is God because he is described as being in the form of God
Php 2:5 Have this mind in you, which was also in
Christ Jesus:
Php 2:6 who, existing in the form of God, counted not the
being on an equality with God a thing to be grasped,
Php 2:7 but emptied
himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men; Php
2:8 and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient
even unto death, yea, the death of the cross.
Php 2:9 Wherefore also God
highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is above every name;
Php 2:10 that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in
heaven and things on earth and things under the earth,
Php 2:11 and that
every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the
Father.
Paul here is speaking of the Messiah Jesus who was, as Jews
understood, an anointed man. This is the same Paul that explicitly distinguished
Jesus from God in every epistle greeting, including the beginning of this
epistle.
Php 1:2 Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord
Jesus Christ.
The same Paul who ... preached around the
Mediterranean in the book of Acts that Jesus is the Son of God. The same Paul
that painfully distinguished Jesus from the one God of the bible (1Tim 2:5, 1Cor
8:6, Eph 4:4-6). Paul tells his Philippian audience to be like this man, who
even though he was in the form/status of God did not
grasp at equality with God. Instead he emptied/humbled himself taking the
form/status of a servant/slave. In other words Jesus as God’s only begotten Son and King of Israel stood in a
functional equality with God. He had a godlike form/status as God’s anointed
represented coming in God’s name (John 5:43). However instead of calling
for people to serve him he humbled himself to serve his brethren. He became
obedient even to death and what happened? GOD HIGHLY
EXALTED HIM! Who exalted him? God did! Jesus, even within this
supposed Trinitarian proof text is plainly distinguished from God. Trinitarians
like to ignore verses 9-11, which show as the rest of the bible, does, that
Jesus exaltation was a reward based on his obedience! People
confuse Jesus legal agency with ontological identity.
Claim 10. Jesus is God because he is
called equal to God.
John 5:16 And this was why the
Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath.
John 5:17 But Jesus answered them, "My Father is working until now, and I am
working."
John 5:18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill
him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God
his own Father, making himself equal with God.
John 5:19 So Jesus said to
them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but
only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, that the Son
does likewise.
John 5:20 For the Father loves the Son and shows him all that
he himself is doing. And greater works than these will he show him, so that you
may marvel.
John 5:21 For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life,
so also the Son gives life to whom he will.
John 5:22 The Father judges no
one, but has given all judgment to the Son,
John 5:23 that all may honor the
Son, just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not
honor the Father who sent him.
... If [verse 18] is simply the
[Jews'] accusation then it is meaningless since the Jews also called him a
drunkard, demon-possessed, glutton, crazy, etc. Some people are uncomfortable
with the idea that Jesus broke the Sabbath thus they reason John was simply
giving the Jewish accusations.
However elsewhere Jesus seemed to defend
his ability to break the Sabbath by calling himself Lord of the Sabbath and
pointing out how David broke it also but his Jewish accusers wouldn't speak evil
of David. Jesus did have a functional equality with God but
it was delegated to him by God. It was one of authority not of inherent
attributes. Jesus says so in verse 19 saying “the Son can do
nothing on his own accord...”
Jesus claims no power or authority of his own, both of which Trinitarians impose on Jesus as a pre-existent god-man. If we let Jesus speak for himself however he says he is the Messiah (John 4:26) whom can do nothing on his own (5:19,30) but whom God has empowered and authorized to go about his mission.
Jesus said in 5:21 that he has been given power to
give life, in 5:22-23 that he was given judgment thus giving him an
authoritative equality with God. He then says again in verses 26-30 that he has
power to resurrect and judge given to him. Saying he can do nothing on his own
again in verse 30.
John 5:36 But the testimony that I have is greater
than that of John. For the works that the Father has given me to accomplish, the
very works that I am doing, bear witness about me that the Father has sent me.
Jesus gave all glory to his Father, he did
nothing by himself all his works were to bear witness that the Father sent him.
Instead Trinitarians say his works are proof that he is a god-man and member of
a three-person god. In order to draw such a conclusion you need to reject Jesus'
teachings, which Trinitarians do unusually well.
Taken from: www.JOHN17-3.ORG
Slightly edited
