As a preamble, I would recommend one and all to view the video at
The Human Jesus
This video will give you a
good basis as to my approach.
If Jesus is not God, then explain...
- Why Thomas calls Jesus 'God' in John 20:28?
Why does God call Jesus 'God' in Heb. 1:8?
My answer:
Just as Almighty GOD could make Moses, 'God' to Pharaoh
[Exo 7.1, 4.16];
and just as men were called Gods by Almighty GOD's unbroken word [Psa 82.6, John 10.34-36];
Jesus the Messiah indeed can be called "God" without himself being Almighty GOD.
Many Bible readers do not realize that elohim/theos/god were much more flexible words in Biblical times.
These words didn't solely denote Almighty GOD.
These words were also used to denote GOD's representatives & judges.
Jesus even used Psa. 82 in John 10.34ff to show in what sense he can indeed
Messianicly and judicially be called "God"; thus John 20.28.
Men therefore are indeed called "God" by Almighty GOD in Scripture. Why?
Because they were meant, especially as judges & kings, to represent Him!
Therefore, Jesus the Messiah is GOD's ultimate representative, judge & plenipotentiary, and as such can also be called 'God' in that context! - Why does John the apostle state that Jesus was the Word which was God
that became flesh (John 1:1,14)?
My answer:
Jesus is indeed GOD's word made flesh.
GOD's word made flesh ... not GOD made flesh!
GOD spoke everything into existence.
[Psa 33.6,9]
Thus everything that exists came into existence by GOD's spoken word.
GOD's word is GOD's self-expression.
IT totally represents Him.
In the fulness of time [Gal 4.4], GOD's word became flesh, as the man Christ Jesus.
Jesus therefore is GOD's word made flesh. (cp. 1 John 1.1-2)
Let me also quote Colin Brown of Fuller Seminary:
"It is a common but patent misreading of the opening of John's Gospel to read it as if it said: 'In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God and the Son was God' (John 1:1). What has happened here is the substitution of Son for Word (Greek logos), and thereby the Son is made a member of the Godhead which existed from the beginning."
See also Concerning John 1:1 - Why is the phrase "Call upon the name of the LORD" (Hebrew, YHWH,
i.e., Joel 2:32) used only of God on the OT, and translated into the Greek in
the LXX as "Call upon the name of the LORD (Greek, KURIOS)," applied to Jesus
in the NT (Rom 10:13) if Jesus is not God in flesh?
My answer:
To begin with there is a certain principle in the Scriptures that one needs to be aware of.
The Jews call it, the law of agency
They have a maxim for it ...
"A person's agent is regarded as the person himself."
(Ned. 72B; Kidd, 41b)
Jesus the Messiah is GOD's ultimate agent, His plenipotentiary, His shaliach.
Using the principle of agency (a principle that is reflected throughout the scriptures, especially in regards to angels);
Jesus, the agent of GOD thus totally represents Almighty GOD.
And especially now he has been glorified, and made both Lord & Christ, by GOD Almighty
[Acts 2.36, 10.36]; and is even set at GOD's right hand;
he can now function for GOD as His ultimate agent.
So much so, that things prophesied to be done by Almighty GOD in the OT, will in actuality be fulfilled by Jesus the Messiah, GOD's agent in the NT, without contradiction.
Because A person's agent is regarded as the person himself.
The 'person' in this case is GOD Almighty.
His agent is Jesus the Messiah.
Hence, the Old and New Testament Parallels.
Thus GOD Almighty will indeed fulfil all remaining prophecies through Jesus Christ, His human agent & representative.
As His agent, Jesus speaks for GOD and acts for GOD.
However, he himself is NOT GOD! He is GOD's human, now glorified, Son
So upon calling & believing on the name of the Lord Jesus, GOD's agent; one is in turn calling on & believing on YHWH GOD Almighty, via His agent.
As Jesus himself said,(John 12:44) Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me.
-
Why does the apostle John say that Jesus was , "... calling God His own Father, making Himself equal to God," (John 5:18)?
My answer:
John is recording the Jews' accusation!
Then he records Jesus' rebuttal.
From verse 19 onwards, Jesus categorically shows that he is not equal to Almighty GOD, rather, he is subordinate to Him. And everything he possesses, is because GOD his Father as given it to him!
(John 5:19) Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
Ask yourself? What kind of omnipotent GOD can do nothing of himself? Hmmm! -
What did Jesus say that caused the Pharisees to claim that Jesus was making Himself out to be God. How was it possible for Jesus to know all things (John 21:17)?
My answer:
Everything Jesus said and did, was to show that he was indeed, the promised Messiah, the Son of the Living GOD, the King of the Jews. Sadly, as time went by, Jesus stated to his unbelieving audience, in one form or another, things such as:
(John 8:43-44) Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word. 44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
(John 8:47) He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.
Is it any wonder then that the Pharisees misunderstood him?
That is why one ought not to based their theology on the Pharisees' words & accusations!!
As for Jesus knowing all things ...
Ask yourself, how did Elisha know that Gehazi was lying and know of the greed in his heart [2 Kings 5.19-27]?
(See also 2 Kings 6.12) How did the prophet Nathan know of David's secret sin? [2 Sam 12.7] Why did people assume that if Jesus was indeed a prophet, he would know what manner of woman was before him in Luke 7.39?
Answer: Because the ONE GOD who knows all things reveals the secret things of mankind [cp. Dan 2.18,28,47] to His prophets. This was common knowledge.
Likewise, everything Jesus said and did, was to show that he was indeed, That Prophet of Deut 18.15ff.
Thus, Jesus knew all things which were revealed to him by GOD his Father!
If GOD did not reveal something to him, then Jesus would not know it e.g.
(Mark 13:32) But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.
Jesus isn't lying. He doesn't know! Remember, he said (John 15:15) Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.
Thus, he cannot make known what he doesn't know! i.e. What he hasn't heard of his Father!
See also
(Acts 1:6-7) When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel? 7 And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.
And in Rev. 1:1, Almighty GOD gave Jesus, a Revelation!
Jesus obviously then, is not omniscient! Even now! -
How can Jesus know all men (John 16:30)?
My answer:
Jesus knew all men in relation to what was revealed to him by GOD his Father!
See the above comment (No. 5). -
How can Jesus be everywhere (Matt. 28:20)?
My answer:
Via GOD's holy spirit. GOD did a similar thing in Nums. 11.24-30 with Moses.
Now He is done a new thing and far greater thing with the new Moses, our Lord Jesus Christ.
Jesus is indeed, actually in Heaven.
However through the spirit of GOD, he and GOD can operate in the church; and via the spirit of GOD, Jesus can be with us all. [John 14.23] -
How can Jesus, the Christ, dwell in you (Col. 1:27)?
My answer:
Via the spirit (see the above comment, no. 7)
Thus, it is the spirit of Christ that dwells in us whilst Christ is in actuality, in Heaven.
(John 16:7) Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
(John 14:17) Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.
(Acts 2:33) Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
(1 Cor 15:45) And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
(Gal 4:6) And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. -
How can Jesus be the exact representation of the Nature of God (Heb. 1:3)?
My answer:
Almighty GOD made him so!
BTW a representation of something/someone is not the actual thing it represents.
Jesus is GOD's word made flesh; he is the image of the invisible GOD.
[Col 1.15, 2 Cor. 4.4]
GOD made Jesus, be the one who totally represents Him. GOD made him, His perfect image, His perfect reflection.
Adam should have been this true image! Alas he was marred by sin & disobedience.
Nevertheless, where Adam failed, Christ succeeded. He is the new man, the Last Adam! -
How can Jesus be eternal (Micah 5:1-2)?
My answer:
He isn't!
It is a translation issue ... The Hebrew word owlam should have been translated:
of ancient times, of days of old
e.g.
Revised Standard Version Micah 5:2
But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, who are little to be among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days.
New Jerusalem Bible Micah 5:1
But you (Bethlehem) Ephrathah, the least of the clans of Judah, from you will come for me a future ruler of Israel whose origins go back to the distant past, to the days of old.
See Concerning Micah 5:2
Also note (Micah 5:4) And he shall stand and feed in the strength of YAHWEH, in the majesty of the name of YAHWEH his God; and they shall abide: for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth.
Seeing that vss. 2-4 is speaking about the Messiah. Agreed? Again, another Scriptural proof that the Messiah was never meant to be understood as GOD Himself!
No, the Messiah has a GOD!
GOD Almighty is the Messiah's GOD!
[John 20.22, Rev 3.12, Heb 1.9]
Thus the Messiah is NOT Almighty GOD!
BTW, Jesus is indeed now immortal.
The first immortalized man to be raised from the dead.
The first of many.
[Rom 8.29, Col 1.18] -
How can Jesus be the one who gives eternal life (John 10:27-28)?
My answer:
Because Almighty GOD, his Father, has given 'eternal life' to him to give to others!
(John 5:26) For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;
(John 17:1-3) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: 2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. 3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
Note, Jesus knows solely ONE GOD! He identifies his Father,
as the only true GOD.
Having Eternal Life therefore, is dependent on one having a proper understanding of GOD and His Son! -
How can He be our only Lord and Master (Jude 4)?
My answer:
Almighty GOD made him so!
(Acts 2:36) Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ. -
How can Jesus be called the Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6) if there is only one God in existence (Isaiah 44:6-8; 45:5)?
My answer:
Likewise, how can Moses be called God?
[Exo 7.1, 4.16]
Likewise, how can the human judges be called God?
[Exo 21.6, 22.8-9, 28, Psa 82.6]
See No. 1 concerning the words elohim/theos/god
BTW, the Hebrew of Isa 9.6 is el gibbor
It doesn't mean Almighty GOD. It means a mighty warrior, a great or mighty man.
In the context of Isaiah 9:6, The Brown, Driver and Briggs, Hebrew and English Lexicon of the Old Testament, p.42, the best lexicon around, informs us that ‘el gibbor’ in Isaiah 9:6 means
"divine hero (as reflecting the divine majesty)".
el gibbor is actually used in plural in Ezek 32.21, translated "the strong among the mighty" in the KJV,
"the mighty chiefs" in the RSV,NRSV.
Hence, another proof that el gibbor is a title used to denote men/humans.
For more info on Isaiah 9:6 see also
Isaiah 9:6: What is Meant by the Messiah being 'God' and 'Father'? -
How can Jesus be called the Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6) and "God" also be called the Mighty God in Isaiah 10:21?
My answer:
See my comments about Isaiah 10.21 at Concerning Isaiah 9:6 -
How was Jesus able to raise Himself from the dead (John 2:19-21)?
My answer:
He wasn't able! He didn't raise himself from the dead!!
Over 20 times, the NT makes it categorically clear that GOD Almighty, his Father, raised Jesus His Son from the dead.
This testimony is recorded by people who ought to know ... the apostles!
Note: (John 2:22) When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.
Thus, after he had risen from the dead; the disciples understood what Jesus meant in verse 19.
Jesus was speaking prophetically. A prophet would sometimes speak in the first person (grammatically that is) of what GOD was going to do. Thus the prophet would speak as if the prophet was himself, GOD!
Again, this is the law/principle of agency!
Moses does this in Deut. Chap 29. Moses is speaking and by verse 5 he is sounding as if he is himself, GOD! Also in Chap. 11, Moses is speaking and again in verses 14-15, he speaks as if he is GOD himself! This is how a Prophet would sometimes speak.
Thus, Jesus spoke prophetically about his resurrection.
Jesus died for our sins.
NOTE: GOD ALMIGHTY CANNOT DIE!
GOD ALMIGHTY raised Jesus from the dead.
We must believe this!
Rom 10.9 ... believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead ...
(1 Cor 15:15) Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
See also DID JESUS CHRIST RAISE HIMSELF FROM THE DEAD? -
How can Jesus create all things (Col. 1:16-17), yet it is God who created all things by Himself (Isaiah 44:24)?
My answer:
Firstly, the context of Colossians 1 is about the new creation i.e. the future Coming Kingdom of GOD; hence, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers.
Colossians 1 is simply a matter of translation.
The first word translated BY in the KJV text of verse 16 is the Greek word EN;
it should have been translated IN not BY!
The 2nd word translated BY is the Greek word DIA.
It should have been translated THROUGH not BY!
Hence,
Col 1:16 for IN him were all things created ... all things were created THROUGH him, and for him; e.g.
RSV for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities--all things were created through him and for him.
ASV for in him were all things created, in the heavens and upon the earth, things visible and things invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers; all things have been created through him, and unto him;
(The KJV translators simply translated en & dia as BY in order to give a biased impression that Jesus is the Creator)
God created all things IN His Son because His Son is the firstborn, the heir of all things and the focal point of God's creation.
Paul spoke of God choosing believers IN Christ before the foundation of the world (Eph 1:4). Since God had this foreknown plan revolving around His Son (1 Pet 1:20) it can be said that God created everything IN, THROUGH and FOR his Son. -
How can Jesus search the hearts and minds of the people (Rev. 2:23)?
My answer:
Again, how did Elisha know what was in Gehazi's heart? Because GOD enabled him to know.
Likewise at a far greater scale:
GOD has glorified Jesus the Messiah and given him such authority
[Matt 28.18]
Especially seeing that now, Jesus is the High Priest of our profession in the heavens.
[Heb 3.1, 4.14]
He indeed needs to know what's in our hearts.
Remember, everything Jesus knows is because of what GOD has revealed to him.
Everything that Jesus can do is because of what GOD has enabled him to do.
However, he is still the man Christ Jesus.
(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men,
the man Christ Jesus; -
Why was Jesus worshiped (Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6) when He says to worship God only (Matt. 4:10)? (same Greek word for worship is used in each place.)
My answer:
Many Bible readers assume that "Only Almighty GOD can be worshiped!"
Actually, this is not so!
This is another translation issue.
The words translated "worship" in our Bibles, Hebrew shachah and Greek proskuneo can indeed be used in ref. to human beings.
These words are generally translated,
"bow down, make reverence to, do reverence to, make obeisance to";
especially in regards to kings & dignitaries.
See for example how the Hebrew word is used in regards to Saul, David and Solomon, at The Worship of Christ
Sadly, the translators weren't consistent when translating the Greek word proskuneo in regards to the ultimate human king, the King Messiah Jesus, the promised King of the Jews, the destined Prophet of Deut. 18!
(Thus translating it as worship giving us English readers the impression that, therefore, Jesus must be GOD!)
His disciples and people in general did indeed make reverence/obesiance to Jesus of Nazareth; because he is "That Prophet" ... he is the Messiah, the Son of GOD, the King of Israel.
[John 1.49]
And one day ...
(Phil 2:10-11) That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; 11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Therefore,
Jesus was and is worshiped AS the Lord Messiah, the Son of the Living GOD!
He is never worshiped AS Almighty GOD
See The Worship of Christ -
In the OT God was seen (Exodus 6:2-3; 24:9-11; Num. 12:6-9; Acts 7:2), yet no man can see God (Exodus 33:20; John 1:18). It was not the Father that was seen in the OT (John 6:46). Who, then were they seeing?
My answer:
No man indeed as seen the ONE GOD, the Father, at anytime.
[John 1.18, 5.37, 1 John 4.12]
What the patriarchs & OT saints saw were angels.
Angels represented the invisible GOD especially in the OT.
To see any angel was as if one saw GOD Himself.
See for example, Judg. 13.21-22.
An angel of GOD would speak for GOD & act for GOD
See Acts 7.30,35; 7.53; Gal 3.19; Heb 2.2
GOD spoke in various ways via angels, etc, in the OT; however, it was not until these last days that He spoke via a Son. Why? Because Jesus wasn't begotten/conceived until these last days! He didn't exist in OT times.
(Heb 1:1-2) God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, ... -
Then why did Jesus claim the divine name, "I AM", for Himself in John 8:58?
My answer:
He didn't! There is absolutely no connection at all between Exo 3.14 & John 8.58.
QUOTE:
John 8:58. ... The Greek phrase in the LXX reads ego eimi ho hown, which is not the title clamed by Jesus. Further, this simple phrase ego eimi is everywhere else rendered "I am he."
What Jesus had just claimed here was that Messiah’s day was a reality to Abraham through the eyes of faith. But Messiah "existed" as the supreme subject of God’s plan long before the birth of Abraham.
"Before Abraham came to be, I am he" is a profound statement about God’s original plan for the world centered in Jesus, whom John can also describe as "crucified before the foundation of the world" (Rev. 13:8). If Jesus was "crucified before Abraham" he himself may be said to have "existed" in the eternal counsels of God, for he was appointed as Savior of the world before the birth of Abraham.
...
In fact, the majority of the translations since the KJV recognize this as the simple meaning of what Jesus said and meant by supplying in italics the word "he." "I am he." This is the correct sense, just as in the next chapter when the blind man is asked whether he is the one who used to sit and beg. He says ego eimi, and it means, "I am he" or "I am the one you are talking about." Nobody would dare suggest that he too was claiming to be the "I am what I am" of Exodus. Yet that is the very forced understanding your "authority" would have us adopt. To confirm this as the true meaning, have a look at John 4. The woman at the well in verse 25 says to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called the Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us."
In verse 26, "Jesus said to her, ‘I who speak to you am [then even the KJV supplies in italics the obvious meaning] he’"
(i.e., the Messiah, not God!).
Really, this is elementary to any "authority," and to teach otherwise seems quite reprehensible.
ENDQUOTE
Source: The Trinity No Longer Makes Sense -
Then why did Jesus say you must honor him even as you honor the Father (John 5:23)?
My answer:
Because Jesus is the Son of the Living GOD. He is GOD's appointed Messiah, King and Agent.
[Psa 2.2,6-7,12]
And as such is worthy of such honor, because GOD decreed it so.
Even the angels of GOD must give him honor. [Heb 1.6]
In fact,
(Phil 2:9-11) Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: 10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; 11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. -
Then why is it that both the Father and the Son give life (John 5:21)?
My answer:
(John 10:30) I and my Father are one.
That is, they are one in unity and purpose
GOD now operates thru His Son. -
Then why did Jesus bear witness of Himself (John 8:18; 14:6)?
My answer:
(John 8:15-19) Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man. 16 And yet if I judge, my judgment is true: for I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me. 17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. 18 I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. 19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.
This answer speaks for itself!!
Dear Reader, hopefully, the above answers will aid you in your quest for the truth of the ONE GOD and His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord.
Again, I recommend the video at The Human
Jesus for further
consideration.
