The LORD and the Lord

The LORD and the Lord

The LORD fills the pages of the Old Testament. The Old Testament has over 6000 references to the LORD. The LORD is revealed to be the Creator, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the God of our fathers, the God of Israel.
In short, the LORD is the God of the Old Testament.

The Lord Jesus fills the pages of the New Testament. He is revealed to be "that prophet," the Messiah, the son of God, the one who died and was raised again. Jesus is the Lord of the New Testament.

Is the LORD of the Old Testament the same Being as the Lord of the New Testament? That is to say,
was the LORD in the Old Testament the one who became the Lord Jesus in the New Testament?
Is the LORD = the Lord? Are they one and the same Being? What does the evidence from the Bible say?

In order to identify those involved in our study, it is most helpful to call them by their names. In our English language Bibles, we read the name of God as "the LORD." This is, of course, not a name, but rather a title. The phrase "the LORD" is a substitution for the Hebrew name YHWH. YHWH is thought by some to be pronounced Yahweh, and by others to be Jehovah. Pronunciation aside (there is one right way to pronounce the name, but none of us are certain what it is), it is of great value to recognize that YHWH is his name—not to obtain salvation through pronunciation, but rather to properly identify who we are talking about. (I will use YaHWeH.) YaHWeH identified himself by revealing his name to us, in the Hebrew language:

• And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, YaHWeH God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations. Exodus 3:15
• I am YaHWeH: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images.
  Isaiah 42:8

Notice that in these verses, and thousands and thousands more like them, singular pronouns (I, me, my, mine) are used in connection with YaHWeH, the God of the Old Testament. YaHWeH is a single person, not a family. If the name YaHWeH referred to a family, the pronouns used would be plural (we, us, our, ours). The overwhelming number of pronouns used that refer to YaHWeH God are singular.

In our English language Bibles, the name of the Lord Messiah is rendered "Jesus." But the name that he called himself, and the name that family, friends, and foes called him was his Hebrew given name: Yeshua. This name is the same name as the leader who succeeded Moses, commonly (although erroneously) called Joshua. The name Yeshua means ‘Yahweh saves’—a perfect description of the life mission of our Lord Yeshua the Messiah. Just as "Joshua" led the children of Israel into the promised land, Messiah Yeshua will lead the children of God into the promised land of the coming Kingdom of God.

The LORD (YaHWeH) and the Lord (Yeshua) have different names

The LORD, the God of the Old Testament, is named YaHWeH, whereas the Lord Messiah is named Yeshua. These two personages are frequently addressed as distinct individuals in the salutations of Paul’s letters:

• Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) Galatians 1:1
• Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ. Philippians 1:2
• Grace unto you, and peace, from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. II Thessalonians 1:2
• Unto Timothy, my own son in the faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God our Father and Jesus Christ our Lord. I Timothy 1:2

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Why then do they have different names?

The LORD (YaHWeH) prophesied the birth of the Lord Yeshua

• And YaHWeH God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life: And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel. Genesis 3:14-15

We know that the Lord Jesus is the seed of the woman. Later In Isaiah, YaHWeH prophesies the birth of the Lord Jesus:

• Ask thee a sign of YaHWeH thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above. But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt YaHWeH. And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Isaiah 7:11-14

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus prophesy his own birth?

Mary praised The LORD (YaHWeH) while she was pregnant with the Lord Yeshua

• And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord [YaHWeH], And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour. For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed. For he that is mighty hath done to me great things; and holy is his name. And his mercy is on them that fear him from generation to generation. He hath shewed strength with his arm; he hath scattered the proud in the imagination of their hearts. He hath put down the mighty from their seats, and exalted them of low degree. He hath filled the hungry with good things; and the rich he hath sent empty away. He hath holpen his servant Israel, in remembrance of his mercy; As he spake to our fathers, to Abraham, and to his seed for ever. Luke 1:46-55

Mary was a faithful Israelite who worshipped YaHWeH, the God of her fathers. She knew of no other God. At the time that she spoke this prayer of praise, the Lord Yeshua was in her womb. She could ONLY have been speaking to and about God the Father, unless we are willing to entertain the notion that she was praying to the baby in her womb as her God. The God that Mary spoke to was the LORD (YaHWeH) God that she had known all her life. He was the God who spoke to her fathers, the God who spoke to Abraham. That God was most assuredly YaHWeH, the God of the Old Testament.

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Mary pray to the baby in her womb, calling him God?

The LORD (YaHWeH) declared that the Lord Jesus (Yeshua) was his son

• The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against YaHWeH, and against his anointed, saying, Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us. He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord (Adonai) shall have them in derision. Then shall he speak unto them in his wrath, and vex them in his sore displeasure. Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion. I will declare the decree: YaHWeH hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. Psalms 2:2-7

In this famous messianic prophecy, YaHWeH God proclaimed that His anointed (chosen) one was His son. We know that the second Psalm is about the Lord Yeshua, whom the LORD (YaHWeH) affirms to be His son.

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus declare that he was going to have a son?

The LORD (YaHWeH) anointed the Lord Jesus (Yeshua) to preach

In John 20:17 Yeshua of Nazareth said: "Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God." Yeshua is identifying his Father, his God, as the same one who is our Father, our God—the one known throughout the Old Testament as YaHWeH. When Yeshua entered into the synagogue on the Sabbath day and stood up to read, he read the following passage, explaining that he was the "me" of the passage:

• The Spirit of the Lord YaHWeH is upon me; because YaHWeH hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; To proclaim the acceptable year of YaHWeH, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn; Isaiah 61:1-2

Yeshua read in the scroll about YaHWeH, the God of the Old Testament. There is no indication that Yeshua himself had been that YaHWeH God, and that he was reading about…himself! Indeed, the passage expressly states that YaHWeH anointed Yeshua to preach good tidings. Did Yeshua anoint himself? The text indicates that Yeshua is a distinct person from YaHWeH.

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Yeshua anoint himself?

The LORD (YaHWeH) prophesied that the Lord Jesus would be a prophet

• YaHWeH thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me [Moses]; unto him ye shall hearken; Deuteronomy 18:15

In the book of Acts, Peter bears witness to the fulfillment of this prophecy:

• For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you.
• Unto you first God, having raised up his servant Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities. Acts 3:22, 26

The LORD (YaHWeH) of the Old Testament fulfilled His prophecy to raise up a prophet unto Israel. That prophet was the Lord Jesus. Did he raise up himself?

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus prophesy his own coming?

The LORD (YaHWeH) gave the Torah that the Lord Jesus (Yeshua) quoted to satan the devil

• Then saith Yeshua unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve. Matthew 4:10

This is a quote from the Torah:

• Thou shalt fear YaHWeH thy God, and serve him, and shalt swear by his name. Deuteronomy 6:13

Yeshua affirmed that it was YaHWeH who gave the Torah to the children of Israel. Yeshua served only his God YaHWeH, and taught that we should do the same.

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus quote the Torah that he had himself written? Was Yeshua the YaHWeH God of the Old Testament? Did he serve himself?

The LORD (YaHWeH) promised that the Lord (Yeshua) would be king upon the throne of David

• Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of YaHWeH of hosts will perform this. Isaiah 9:7

This promise was repeated by the angel Gabriel to Mary, speaking of her firstborn son Yeshua:

• He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David… Luke 1:32

The "Lord God" that Gabriel spoke of is none other than the LORD (YaHWeH) spoken of in Isaiah’s prophecy. In both Old Testament and New Testament, there is one God, whose name is YaHWeH. That one God, YaHWeH, has a son to whom He promised the throne of King David.

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus promise himself the throne of David? Does Jesus have a son? Is Jesus his own son?

The LORD (YaHWeH) raised the Lord Jesus (Yeshua) from the dead

• The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his servant Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let him go. But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you; And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses. Acts 3:13-15
• The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree Acts 5:30
• Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain: Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it. Acts 2:22 -24

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus raise himself from the dead? If Jesus was truly dead, how could he raise himself?

The LORD (YaHWeH) has a servant named Jesus (Yeshua)

• And when they heard that, they lifted up their voice to God with one accord, and said, Lord, thou art God, which hast made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and all that in them is: Who by the mouth of thy servant David hast said, Why did the heathen rage, and the people imagine vain things? The kings of the earth stood up, and the rulers were gathered together against the Lord, and against his Christ. For of a truth against thy holy servant Jesus, whom thou hast anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together… Acts 4:24-27

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Is Jesus his own servant?

The LORD (YaHWeH) spoke in prophecy of the Lord Jesus (Yeshua)

• The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. Psalm 110:1

Notice that the first "LORD" is not the same as the second "Lord" in this verse. The first LORD is YaHWeH, the name of the God of the Old Testament. The second Lord (Hebrew: Adoni, which can only be used to refer to men and occasionally angels; not used to refer to God) is not a name, but a title, meaning ‘master.’ Many references to this verse in the New Testament demonstrate that this passage is a statement made by YaHWeH concerning Yeshua (Jesus). For example: 

• This Jesus [Yeshua] hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD [YaHWeH] said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, until I make thy foes thy footstool. Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ. Acts 2:32-36

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus speak in prophecy of himself?

The LORD (YaHWeH) prophesied that the Lord Jesus (Yeshua) would be seated at His right hand

• YaHWeH said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. Psalm 110:1

In this most quoted of all Old Testament passages, we see not only speech between the LORD (YaHWeH) and the Lord Yeshua, but also location. YaHWeH promised the Lord that he (Yeshua) would sit at His right hand. That is exactly what happened. The Lord Yeshua was raised by his Father from the dead and took his promised position, sitting at the right hand of YaHWeH:

• So then after the Lord [Yeshua] had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God. Mark 16:19

 Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? Did Jesus promise himself that he would one day sit next to himself?

The LORD (YaHWeH) explicitly claimed that He alone was the Creator God
The Lord Jesus (Yeshua) NEVER made such a claim

• Thus saith YaHWeH, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am YaHWeH that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself; Isaiah 44:24
• I am YaHWeH, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me: That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am YaHWeH, and there is none else. Isaiah 45:5-6
• But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female. (Mark 10:6)
• ... from the beginning of the creation which God created ... (Mark 13:19)

 

The LORD (YaHWeH) is called the Father in the Old Testament

It is commonly taught by those who say that the LORD of the Old Testament was the one who became Jesus that God the Father was completely unknown in the Old Testament, never mentioned at all—except perhaps for the reference to the Ancient of Days in the book of Daniel. But the Bible is full of evidence demonstrating that YaHWeH—the God of the Old Testament—is called the Father in the Old Testament. This fact was known by such people as Isaiah, Moses, the Psalmist, and Malachi:

• Doubtless thou art our father, though Abraham be ignorant of us, and Israel acknowledge us not: thou, O YaHWeH, art our father, our redeemer; thy name is from everlasting. Isaiah 63:16
• Do ye thus requite YaHWeH, O foolish people and unwise? is not he thy father that hath bought thee? hath he not made thee, and established thee? Deuteronomy 32:6
• For YaHWeH is our defence; and the Holy One of Israel is our king. Then thou spakest in vision to thy holy one, and saidst, I have laid help upon one that is mighty; I have exalted one chosen out of the people. I have found David my servant; with my holy oil have I anointed him … He shall cry unto me, Thou art my father, my God, and the rock of my salvation. Psalms 89:18-20,26
• Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers? Malachi 2:10
• A son honoureth his father, and a servant his master: if then I be a father, where is mine honour? and if I be a master, where is my fear? saith YaHWeH of hosts unto you, O priests, that despise my name. And ye say, Wherein have we despised thy name? Malachi 1:6
• But now, O YaHWeH, thou art our father; we are the clay, and thou our potter; and we all are the work of thy hand. Isaiah 64:8

When the Lord Yeshua came to reveal the Father, it wasn’t to introduce a new personage who was previously unknown, but rather to give far greater revelation than had previously been done. This is not to say that Israel did not know that their God was God the Father, for He frequently revealed Himself to them as a Father. We have ample evidence and manifold witness in the Old Testament showing that the Creator YaHWeH God is our Father.

Paul, a staunch and faithful follower of the Lord Jesus (Yeshua) made a significant statement regarding the identity of the God that he had worshipped all his life. Note that the God that Paul worshipped when he was a young man (while the man Jesus walked the earth) is the same God that Paul worshipped years later when he wrote to the Corinthians:

• But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by [through] whom are all things, and we by him. I Corinthians 8:6

Note also that at the time Paul wrote this remarkably clear statement, Jesus had for many years been resurrected and was sitting at the right hand of God the Father. Paul acknowledged one God—not two—and referred to that one God specifically as the Father. Paul also acknowledged the Lord Jesus, but did not refer to him as God.

Therefore, Is the LORD = the Lord? According to scripture, was the LORD (YaHWeH) in the Old Testament the one who became the Lord Jesus (Yeshua) in the New Testament?

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Based upon the article of the same name by Jonathan Sjørdal

http://www.creatorgod.org/The%20LORD%20and%20the%20Lord.pdf

The Bible Denies the Deity of Jesus

The Bible Denies the Deity of Jesus

This article which I have taken from another source and performed some editing on [1]; contains the following seven arguments which prove that the Bible denies the deity of Jesus:

1) None of the Bible’s Writers Believed That Jesus is God

2) Evidence From the Acts of the Apostles

3) Jesus is Not All-Powerful, and Not All-Knowing

4) The Greatest Commandment in the Bible

5) Paul Believed That Jesus is not God

6) Evidence from the Gospel of John

7) God and Jesus Are Two Separate Beings
 

1) None of the Bible’s Writers Believed That Jesus is God:

Many people misunderstand the Bible; they feel that the belief in Jesus as God is so widespread that it must have come from the Bible.  This article shows quite conclusively that the Bible does not teach that.

The Bible clearly teaches that Jesus is not God.  In the Bible God is always someone else other than Jesus.

Some will say that something Jesus said or something he did while on the earth proves that he is God.  We will show that the disciples never came to the conclusion that Jesus is God.  And these are people who lived and walked with Jesus and thus knew first hand what he said and did.  Furthermore, we are told in the Acts of the Apostles in the Bible that the Holy Spirit was guiding the disciples.  If Jesus is God, surely they should know it.  But they did not.  They kept worshipping the one true God who was worshipped by Abraham, Moses, and Jesus (see Acts 3:13).

All of the writers of the Bible believed that God was not Jesus.  The idea that Jesus is God did not become part of Christian belief until after the Bible was written, and took many centuries to become part of the faith of Christians.

Matthew, Mark, and Luke, authors of the first three Gospels, believed that Jesus was not God (see Mark 10:18 and Matthew 19:17).  They believed that he was the son of God …

Paul, believed to be the author of some thirteen or fourteen letters in the Bible, also believed that Jesus is not God.  Even in the letter to the Hebrews, and also in the Gospel and Letters of John composed … after Jesus; in all of these writings, however, Jesus is still a servant of God and is therefore forever subservient to God (see 1 Corinthians 15:28).

Now, because Paul, John, and the author of Hebrews believed that Jesus was God’s most highly exalted Son, some of what they wrote … is often misunderstood to mean that he must have been God.  But to say that Jesus was God is to go against what these very authors wrote.  Although these authors had this belief that Jesus is greater than all creatures, they also believed that he was still lesser than God.  In fact, John quotes Jesus as saying: "...the Father is greater than I." (John 14:28).  And Paul declares that the head of every woman is her husband, the head of every man is Christ, and the head of Christ is God (see 1 Corinthians 11:3).

Therefore, to find something in these writings and claim that these teach that Jesus is God is to misuse and misquote what those authors are saying.  What they wrote must be understood in the context of their belief that Jesus is the Son of God as they have already clearly said.

  The Bible clearly teaches that there is only one true God, the one whom Jesus worshipped (see John 17:3).

In the rest of this article we will explore the Bible in more depth, and deal with the passages that are most often misquoted as proofs of Jesus’ deity.  We will show, with God’s help, that these do not mean what they are so often used to prove.

2) Evidence From the Acts of the Apostles:

Jesus performed many miraculous wonders, and he without doubt said a lot of wonderful things about himself.  Some people use what he said and did as a proof that he was God.  But his original disciples who lived and walked with him, and were eyewitnesses to what he said and did, never reached this conclusion.

The Acts of the Apostles in the Bible details the activity of the disciples over a period of thirty years after Jesus was lifted up to heaven.  Throughout this period they never refer to Jesus as God.  They continually and consistently use the title God to refer to someone else other than Jesus.

Peter stood up with the eleven disciples and addressed the crowd saying: "Men of Israel, listen to this: Jesus of Nazareth was a man accredited by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs, which God did among you through him, as you yourselves know." (Acts 2:22).

It was God; therefore, who did the miracles through Jesus to convince people that Jesus was backed by God.  Peter did not see the miracles as proof that Jesus is God.

In fact, the way Peter refers to God and to Jesus makes it clear that Jesus is not God.  For he always turns the title God away from Jesus.  Take the following references for example:

"God has raised this Jesus..." (Acts 2:32)

"God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ." (Acts 2:36)

In both passages, the title God is turned away from Jesus.  So why did he do this, if Jesus was God?

For Peter, Jesus was a servant of God.  Peter said: "God raised up his servant..." (Acts 3:26).  The title servant refers to Jesus.  This is clear from a previous passage where Peter declared: "The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of our fathers, has glorified his servant Jesus." (Acts 3:13).

Peter must have known that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob never spoke of a Triune God.  They always spoke of God as the only God.  Here, as in Matthew 12:18, Jesus is the servant of God.  Matthew tells us that Jesus was the same servant of God spoken of in Isaiah 42:1.  So, according to Matthew and Peter, Jesus is not God, but God’s servant.  The Old Testament repeatedly says that God alone is God (e.g. Isaiah 45:5).

All of the disciples of Jesus held this view.  In Acts 4:24 we are told that the believers prayed to God saying: "...they raised their voices together in prayer to God. ‘Sovereign Lord,’ they said, ‘you made the heaven and the earth and the sea, and everything in them.’"  It is clear that the one they were praying to was not Jesus, because, two verses later, they referred to Jesus as "...your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed." (Acts 4:27).

If Jesus was God, his disciples should have said this clearly.  Instead, they kept preaching that Jesus was God’s Christ.  We are told in Acts: "Day after day, in the temple courts and from house to house, they never stopped teaching and proclaiming the good news that Jesus is the Christ." (Acts 5:42).

The Greek word "Christ" is a human title.  It means "Anointed."  If Jesus was God, why would the disciples continually refer to him with human titles like servant and Christ of God, and consistently use the title God for the one who raised Jesus?  Did they fear men?  No! They boldly preached the truth fearing neither imprisonment nor death.  When they faced opposition from the authorities, Peter declared: "We must obey God rather than men!  The God of our fathers raised Jesus..." (Acts 5:29-30).

Were they lacking the Holy Spirit?  No! They were supported by the Holy Spirit (see Acts 2:4, 4:8, and 5:32). They were simply teaching what they had learnt from Jesus — that Jesus was not God but, rather, God’s servant and Christ.

3) Jesus is Not All-Powerful, and Not All-Knowing:

God is all-powerful and all-knowing.  The Gospels show that Jesus was not all-powerful, and not all-knowing, since he had some limitations.

Therefore, although we must hold a great love and respect for Jesus, we need to understand that he is not the all-powerful God.

Mark’s Gospel reveals that Jesus had limitations in his knowledge.  In Mark 13:32, Jesus declared that he himself does not know when the last day will occur, but the Father alone knows that (see also Matthew 24:36).

Therefore, Jesus could not have been the all-knowing God.  Some will say that Jesus knew when the last day would occur, but he chose not to tell.  But that complicates matters further.  Jesus could have said that he knows but he does not wish to tell.  Instead, he said that he does not know.  We must believe him.  Jesus does not lie at all.

The Gospel of Luke also reveals that Jesus had limited knowledge.  Luke says that Jesus increased in wisdom (Luke 2:52).  In Hebrews too (Hebrews 5:8) we read that Jesus learned obedience.  But God’s knowledge and wisdom is always perfect, and God does not learn new things.  He knows everything always.  So, if Jesus learned something new, that proves that he did not know everything before that, and thus he was not God.

Another example for the limited knowledge of Jesus is the fig tree episode in the Gospels.  Mark tells us as follows: "The next day as they were leaving Bethany, Jesus was hungry.  Seeing in the distance a fig tree in leaf, he went to find out if it had any fruit.  When he reached it, he found nothing but leaves, because it was not the season for figs." (Mark 11:12-13).

It is clear from these verses that the knowledge of Jesus was limited on two counts.  First, he did not know that the tree had no fruit until he came to it.  Second, he did not know that it was not the right season to expect figs on trees.

Can he become God later?  No! Because there is only one God, and He is God from everlasting to everlasting (see Psalms 90:2).

Someone may say that Jesus was God but he took the form of a servant and therefore became limited.  Well, that would mean that God changed.  But God does not change.  God said so according to Malachi 3:6.

Jesus never was God, and never will be.  In the Bible, God declares: "Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me." (Isaiah 43:10).

The Bible clearly shows that Jesus was not all-powerful and all-knowing as the true God should be.

4) The Greatest Commandment in the Bible:

Some will say that this whole discussion over the deity of Jesus is unnecessary.  They say; the important thing is to accept Jesus as your personal savior.  On the contrary, the Bible’s writers stressed that, in order to be saved, it is necessary to understand who exactly is God.  Failure to understand this would be to violate the first and greatest of all the commandments in the Bible.  This commandment was emphasized by Jesus, when a teacher of the Law of Moses asked him: "‘Of all the commandments, which is the most important?’  ‘The most important one,’ answered Jesus, ‘is this: Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one.  Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.’" (Mark 12:28-30).

Notice that Jesus was quoting the first commandment from the book of Deuteronomy 6:4-5.  Jesus confirmed not only that this commandment is still valid, but also that it is the most important of all the commandments.  If Jesus thought that he himself is God, why did he not say so?  Instead, he stressed that God is one.  The man who questioned Jesus understood this, and what the man says next makes it clear that God is not Jesus, for he said to Jesus: "‘Well said, teacher,’ the man replied.  ‘You are right in saying that God is one and there is no other but him.’" (Mark 12:32).

Now if Jesus was God, he would have told the man so.  Instead, he let the man refer to God as someone other than Jesus, and he even saw that the man had spoken wisely: "When Jesus saw that he had answered wisely, he said to him, ‘You are not far from the kingdom of God.’" (Mark 12:34).  If Jesus knew that God is a trinity, why did he not say so?  Why did he not say that God is one in three, or three in one?  Instead, he declared that God is one.  True imitators of Jesus will imitate him also in this declaration of God’s oneness.  They will not add the word three where Jesus never said it.

Does salvation depend on this commandment?  Yes, says the Bible!  Jesus made this clear when another man approached Jesus to learn from him (see Mark 10:17-29).  The man fell on his knees and said to Jesus: "Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?"  Jesus replied: "Why do you call me good?  No one is good — except God alone." (Mark 10:17-18).

By so saying, Jesus made a clear distinction between himself and God.  Then he proceeded with the answer to the man’s question about how to get salvation.  Jesus told him: "If you want to enter life, obey the commandments." (Matthew 19:17, also see Mark 10:19).

Remember that the most important of all the commandments, according to Jesus, is to know God as the only God.  Jesus further emphasized this in the Gospel according to John.  In John 17:1, Jesus lifted his eyes to heaven and prayed, addressing God as Father.  Then in verse three, he said to God as follows: "Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent." (John 17:3).

This proves beyond doubt that if people want to get eternal life they must know that the One, whom Jesus was praying to, is the only true God, and they must know that Jesus was sent by the true God.  Some say that the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Ghost is God.  But Jesus said that the Father alone is the only true God.  True followers of Jesus will follow him in this too.  Jesus had said that his true followers are those who hold to his teachings.  He said: "If you hold to my teaching, you are really my disciples." (John 8:31).  His teaching is that people must continue to keep the commandments, especially the first commandment, which emphasizes that God alone, is God, and that God should be loved with all our hearts and all our strengths. …

5) Paul Believed That Jesus is not God:

Many people use Paul’s writings as proof that Jesus is God.  But this is not fair to Paul, because Paul clearly believed that Jesus is not God.  In his first letter to Timothy, Paul wrote: "I charge you, in the sight of God and Christ Jesus and the elect angels, to keep these instructions..." (1 Timothy 5:21).

It is clear from this that the title God applies not to Christ Jesus, but to someone else.  In the following chapter, he again differentiates between God and Jesus when he says: "In the sight of God, who gives life to everything, and of Christ Jesus, who while testifying before Pontius Pilate made the good confession..." (1 Timothy 6:13).

Paul then went on to speak of the second appearance of Jesus: "the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ, which God will bring about in his own time." (1 Timothy 6:14-15).

Again, the title God is deliberately turned away from Jesus.  Incidentally, many people think that when Jesus is called "Lord" in the Bible that this means "God."  But in the Bible this title means master or teacher, and it can be used for addressing humans (see 1 Peter 3:6).

What is more important, however, is to notice what Paul said about God in the following passage, which clearly shows that Jesus is not God: "God, the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings and Lord of lords, who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see.  To him be honor and might forever." (1 Timothy 6:15-16).

Paul said that God alone is immortal.  Immortal means He does not die.  Check any dictionary.  Now, anyone who believes that Jesus died cannot believe that Jesus is God.  Such a belief would contradict what Paul said here.  Furthermore, to say that God died is a blasphemy against God.  Who would run the world if God died?  Paul believed that God does not die.

Paul also said in that passage that God dwells in unapproachable light — that no one has seen God or can see Him.  Paul knew that many thousands of people had seen Jesus.  Yet Paul said that no one has seen God, because Paul was sure that Jesus is not God.  This is why Paul went on teaching that Jesus was not God, but that he was the Christ (see Acts 9:22 and 18:5).

When he was in Athens, Paul spoke of God as "The God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and does not live in temples built by hands." (Acts 17:24).  Then he identified Jesus as "the man he (i.e. God) has appointed." (Acts 17:31).

Clearly, for Paul, Jesus was not God, and he would be shocked to see his writings used for proving the opposite of what he believed.  Paul even testified in court saying: "I admit that I worship the God of our fathers..." (Acts 24:14).

For Paul, the Father alone is God.  Paul said that there is "one God and Father of all...." (Ephesians 4:6).  Paul said again: "...for us there is but one God, the Father . . . and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ..." (1 Corinthians 8:6). …

Paul taught that Jesus would remain forever subservient to God (see 1 Corinthians 15:28).

6) Evidence from the Gospel of John:

The Gospel of John, the fourth Gospel, … says — that Jesus was the word of God made flesh.  …

This Gospel clearly teaches that Jesus is not God.  If it did not continue this teaching, then it would contradict the other three Gospels and also the letters of Paul from which it is clearly established that Jesus is not God.  We find here that Jesus was not co-equal with the Father, for Jesus said: "...the Father is greater than I." (John 14:28).

People forget this and they say that Jesus is equal to the Father.  Whom should we believe — Jesus or the people?  God is self-existent.  This means that He does not derive His existence from anyone.  Yet John tells us that Jesus’ existence is caused by the Father.  Jesus said in this Gospel: "...I live because of the Father..." (John 6:57).

John tells us that Jesus cannot do anything by his own when he quotes Jesus as saying: "By myself I can do nothing..." (John 5:30).  This agrees with what we learn about Jesus from the other Gospels.  In Mark, for example, we learn that Jesus performed miracles by a power, which was not within his control.  This is especially clear from an episode in which a woman is healed of her incurable bleeding.  The woman came up behind him and touched his cloak, and she was immediately healed.  But Jesus had no idea who touched him.  Mark describes Jesus’ actions thus: "At once Jesus realized that power had gone out from him.  He turned around in the crowd and asked, ‘Who touched my clothes?’" (Mark 5:30).  His disciples could not provide a satisfactory answer, so Mark tells us: "Jesus kept looking around to see who had done it." (Mark 5:32).  This shows that the power that healed the woman was not within Jesus’ control.  He knew that the power had gone out of him, but he did not know where it went.  Some other intelligent being had to guide that power to the woman who needed to be healed.  God was that intelligent being.

It is no wonder, then, that in Acts of the Apostles we read that it was God who did the miracles through Jesus (Acts 2:22).

God did extraordinary miracles through others too, but that does not make the others God (see Acts 19:11).  Why, then, is Jesus taken for God?  Even when Jesus raised his friend Lazarus from the dead, he had to ask God to do it.  Lazarus’ sister, Martha, knew this, for she said to Jesus: "I know that even now God will give you whatever you ask." (John 11:22).

Martha knew that Jesus was not God, and John who reported this with approval knew it also.  Jesus had a God, for when he was about to ascend to heaven, he said: "I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God." (John 20:17).

John was sure that no one had seen God, although he knew that many people had seen Jesus (see John 1:18 and 1 John 4:12).  In fact Jesus himself told the crowds, that they have never seen the Father, nor have they heard the Father’s voice (John 5:37).  Notice that if Jesus were the Father, his statement here would be false.  Who is the only God in John’s Gospel?  The Father alone.

Jesus testified this when he declared that the God of the Jews is the Father (John 8:54).  Jesus too confirmed that the Father alone is the only true God (see John 17:1-3).  And Jesus said to his enemies: "...you are determined to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God." (John 8:40).  According to John, therefore, Jesus was not God, and nothing John wrote should be taken as proof that he was God — unless one wishes to disagree with John.

7) God and Jesus Are Two Separate Beings:

Many people use certain verses of the Bible as proof that Jesus is God.  However, all of these verses, when understood in context, prove the opposite!

For example, in Matthew 9:2, Jesus said to a certain man, "Take heart, son; your sins are forgiven."  Because of this, some say that Jesus must be God since only God can forgive sins.  However, if you are willing to read just a few verses further, you will find that the people "...praised God, who had given such authority to men." (Matthew 9:8).  This shows that the people knew, and Matthew agrees, that Jesus was a man who received such authority from God.

John 10:30 is often used as proof that Jesus is God because Jesus said, "I and the father are one."  But, if you read the next six verses, you will find Jesus explaining that his enemies were wrong to think that he was claiming to be Almighty God.  What Jesus obviously means here is that he is one with the Father in purpose.  Jesus also prayed that his disciples should be one just as Jesus and the Father are one.  Obviously, he was not praying that all his disciples should somehow merge into one individual (see John 17:11 and 22).  And when Luke reports that the disciples were all one, Luke does not mean that they became one single human being, but that they shared a common purpose although they were separate beings (see Acts 4:32).  In terms of essence, Jesus and the Father are two, for Jesus said they are two witnesses (John 8:14-18).  They have to be two, since one is greater than the other (see John 14:28).  When Jesus prayed to be saved from the cross, he said: "Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done." (Luke 22:42).

This shows that they had two separate wills, although Jesus submitted his will to the will of the Father.  Two wills mean two separate individuals.

Furthermore, Jesus is reported to have said: "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46).  If one of them forsook the other, then they must be two separate entities.

Again, Jesus is reported to have said: "Father, into your hands I commit my spirit." (Luke 23:46).  If the spirit of one can be placed into the hands of another, they must be two separate beings.

In all of these instances, Jesus is clearly subordinate to the Father.  When Jesus knelt down and prayed he obviously was not praying to himself (see Luke 22:41).  He was praying to his God.

Throughout the New Testament, the Father alone is called God.  In fact, the titles "Father" and "God" are used to designate one individual, not three, …  This is also clear from the fact that Matthew substituted the title "Father" in the place of the title "God" in at least two places in his Gospel (compare Matthew 10:29 with Luke 12:6, and Matthew 12:50 with Mark 3:35).  If Matthew is right in doing so, then the Father alone is God.

Was Jesus the Father?  No! Because Jesus said: "And do not call anyone on earth ‘father,’ for you have one Father, and he is in heaven." (Matthew 23:9).  So Jesus is not the Father, since Jesus was standing on the earth when he said this. …

 

---

[1] All of the quoted verses in this article have been taken from The NIV Study Bible, New International Version

NB: The above was based upon a post taken from an Islamic source on the internet. Although I do
not agree with the Islamic religion (hence the above post has been modified accordingly); the
general theme of this post aligns with Scripture; and one cannot argue against the truth of
Scripture!

See also Is Jesus Really God?

 

Striving To Be A Man After God's Own Heart: Have You Ever Tried To Explain the Trinity?

On the 7th October I posted a comment in response to Dave's attempt to define the trinity as shown in the link below ... Striving To Be A Man After God's Own Heart: Have You Ever Tried To Explain the Trinity?

A week later I discovered that my comment was removed! Now that's not very nice! Is it?
Oh well, it is the blog administrator's choice. :-)

However, no need for my comment to go to waste; so here it is in its entirety for the edification of others, as follows :-

Greetings Dave

Personally, I acknowledge that the concept of the Trinity is very difficult for our finite human minds to comprehend because it is NOT based upon Scripture!

The Scriptures lend themselves to the 'simple' belief that there is solely ONE GOD.
ONE Individual Being who is Almighty GOD, the Father; whilst Jesus the Messiah is the ONE GOD's human son.

Now that is not difficult. It is really very simple and a child can understand this!

Jesus himself said, (John 17:3) And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

So Jesus acknowledged his Father as the only true GOD.
In Mark 12:29 he quoted the Shema as the most important commandment, (
Mark 12:29-30) And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord: 30 And thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and with all thy strength: this is the first commandment.

Thus confirming the fact from Deut 6:4,
that YAHWEH his GOD, was ONE!
YAHWEH IS ONE!

Christ's audience, the scribe, understood Jesus to mean: (Mark 12:32) And the scribe said unto him, Well, Master, thou hast said the truth: for there is one God; and there is none other but he:

So obviously, both Jesus and the scribe were not trinitarians. They had no concept of three co-equal beings who each can be called 'Almighty GOD'. They had absolutely no concept that God is a trinity of persons consisting of one substance and one essence. Why? Because it is NOT in Scripture!

They acknowledged solely ONE individual Being as 'Almighty GOD'.

Jesus went on to say to the scribe, (Mark 12:34) And when Jesus saw that he answered discreetly, he said unto him, Thou art not far from the kingdom of God. ...

Isa 43:10-11 confirms the Oneness of GOD; that there is solely ONE GOD and that there is NO other (co-equal) person or being that can be called Almighty GOD. Isa 43:10-11 speaks of 'one person' who is solely Almighty GOD.

Now, the NT clearly acknowledges the facts that the ONE GOD is the Father; Jesus is His Son; and GOD & Christ operate in the church via the holy spirit which is simply the spirit of GOD;
therefore GOD, His son, and holy spirit is mentioned in Matthew 28:19.

However, Matthew 28:19 says nothing about God eternally existent in three persons. Again, read it! It just does not say that! Besides throughout the Book of Acts, the apostles baptized believers in the name of Jesus! Hmmm!

Concerning John 1:1-3,14.

Dr. Colin Brown (of Fuller Seminary) puts it beautifully ...

"'It is a common but patent misreading of the opening of John’s Gospel to read it as if it said: "In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God and the Son was God." '" Incidentally, Dr. Brown goes on to say "'Indeed to be a "Son of God" one has to be a being who is not God!'"

The fact is, John 1:1-3 does not say In the beginning was the Son or In the beginning was Jesus!
John 1:1-3 is about GOD's word. You know! GOD said and IT was done! [Psa 33,6,9; etc]
In verse 14, John informs us that GOD's word became flesh! That's it!

A word is not a person. A word is an impersonal noun. An IT!

Incidentally, did you know that the majority of the English Bibles before the KJV from Tyndale onwards, translated John 1:1-4 as follows: (John 1:1-4) In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by it; and without it was not any thing made that was made. 4 In it was life; and the life was the light of men.

Thus William Tyndale and other translators understood that John was NOT talking about Jesus, the Son of GOD, in John 1:1-4; rather John was talking about GOD's [spoken] word which in the fulness of time (verse 14; cp. Gal 4.4) became flesh resulting in the person of Jesus Christ.

Therefore, Jesus is not the logos/word as such; rather Jesus is what the word/logos of GOD became!

In John 10:30 Jesus indeed said "I and the Father are one."

However, one what? What is the context? He said nothing about them being of one substance and one essence. From John 10:25ff you ought to see that they are 'one' in agreement & purpose! Plus Jesus prayed that his disciples be one with the Father, even as he was one with the Father!! [John 17.11,21-22] Again, absolutely nothing to do with substance or essence! It goes without saying that the disciples/church of Christ are NOT co-essential or consubstantial with the Father!!!

Eph 4:4-6 ... great scripture! ... "There is one body and one Spirit--just as you were called to the one hope that belongs to your call-- one Lord [Jesus], one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all."

Just as there is numeral one body, spirit, hope, faith, and baptism.
There is in like manner, solely one GOD who is Father of all. This ONE GOD has made none other than Jesus of Nazareth, both Lord and Christ [Acts 2.36, 10.36]. Therefore there is in like manner, solely one Lord, Jesus the Christ. He is the numeral one person whom the ONE GOD, the Father of all, has made Lord of all.

Paul reiterates this truth also in (1 Cor 8:4) ... that there is none other God but one. (1 Cor 8:6) But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

ONE GOD, the Father.
And ONE Lord, Jesus the Christ, the Son of the Father [2 John 3]

So simple! Our finite human minds can gladly grasp these truths. GOD has made solely Jesus, Lord of all. Hence, (Phil 2:11) ... every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Again and again, there is a simple and clear distinction between the ONE GOD & His human son who is the one Lord!

There is solely ONE GOD, the Father. Who has solely exalted & made the man Christ Jesus, Lord of all!

ONE GOD, ONE man!!
GOD alone is GOD!
Whilst Jesus is the one mediator between the ONE GOD & mankind [1 Tim 2.5]
Jesus himself being a man and not GOD, since there is solely ONE Almighty GOD!!

Again, our finite human minds can grasp these simple truths.

Dave, compare your response and trinitarian thoughts to the scribe's response given in Mark 12.32; bearing in mind, Jesus' response in verse 34. Look again, at the above scriptures given. And hopefully you will begin to see that in believing that there is only one God, that is the Father; in believing Jesus as being simply the Son of God, a perfect glorified man; in NOT believing in a so-called trinity (as formulated in the Nicene/Athanasian creeds, etc);

... will bring one much closer to entrance into the Kingdom of GOD.

Dave, May GOD bless you as you endeavor to seek these truths.

Yours In Messiah
Adam Pastor

Holy Ghost Pistoleros: One God Apostolic

Around the 7th October, I posted a comment in reply to the blog dated 2nd October in the link below ... Holy Ghost Pistoleros: One God Apostolic The blogsite had 'moderated comments option' switched on ... and a week later my comment had not been shown, for one reason or another! Therefore I will add my comment here. I was writing in response to 'One God Apostolic's (2nd October) post as follows:

"There is only one God and His name is Jesus! The name of the father is Jesus, the name of the Son is Jesus and the name of the Holy Ghost is Jesus! Only ONE GOD not three! The word trinity does not exist in the bible. Praise God, Jesus!"

The comment I prepared & posted in response is as follows :-

You have made some amazing assertions as a 'One God Apostolic'. However, with very little scriptural backing.

The apostles in the Book of Acts were most definitely One God Apostolics but they never made any of the above assertions.

For example ... There is only one God Amen! But then you say that His name is Jesus

Scripture please? Where does the Bible say that GOD changed His name from YaHWeH to Jesus! Where?

You rightly point out that the word 'trinity' is not in the bible. Amen! (I am not trinitarian). But neither is the assertion that GOD's name is Jesus, in the bible!

The angel of GOD declared that GOD's son will be called JESUS!

Now Jesus himself quoted the Shema [Mark 12:29-30] ... he believed in solely ONE GOD. He called the ONE GOD, the Father ... and called Him the ONLY TRUE GOD. (John 17:1) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father ... (John 17:3) And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

Yet you say The name of the father is Jesus. So, Jesus is saying to Father Jesus ... you are the only true God!?! As you can see that doesn't make any sense. Where is your scriptural backing?

Being aware of 'Oneness' theology you might attempt to use John 5:43. (I am making an assumption.) Jesus, being the Messiah, indeed came in his Father's (the ONE GOD's) name. Even those who believed on him testified of this using scripture.

(Mat 21:9-11) And the multitudes that went before, and that followed, cried, saying, Hosanna to the son of David: Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord; Hosanna in the highest. 10 And when he was come into Jerusalem, all the city was moved, saying, Who is this? 11 And the multitude said, This is Jesus the prophet of Nazareth of Galilee. (Mark 11:9-10) And they that went before, and they that followed, cried, saying, Hosanna; Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord: 10 Blessed be the kingdom of our father David, that cometh in the name of the Lord: Hosanna in the highest. (Luke 19:37-38) And when he was come nigh, even now at the descent of the mount of Olives, the whole multitude of the disciples began to rejoice and praise God with a loud voice for all the mighty works that they had seen; 38 Saying, Blessed be the King that cometh in the name of the Lord: peace in heaven, and glory in the highest. (John 12:13) Took branches of palm trees, and went forth to meet him, and cried, Hosanna: Blessed is the King of Israel that cometh in the name of the Lord.

The scripture that the multitude had in mind is Psalms 118 especially (Psa 118:25-26) Save now, I beseech thee, O YAHWEH: O YAHWEH, I beseech thee, send now prosperity. 26 Blessed be he that cometh in the name of YAHWEH: we have blessed you out of the house of YAHWEH.

Recognizing that Jesus of Nazareth was the King Messiah, the people rejoiced and quoted Psa. 118; affirming that Jesus is the promised King who was to come in the name of YAHWEH, the ONE GOD. Therefore, to come in the Father's name didn't mean that the Father's name is Jesus. It simply meant that One had come in the authority of the ONE GOD, as a fully authorized agent of the ONE GOD. One had come with the ONE GOD's authority. Even the Davidic Kingdom is going to come in the name of YAHWEH! [Mark 11.10] Is its name, also Jesus!!! No! It simply means that the Kingdom will be established & inaugurated by the Father's authority. [Acts 1.7]

So the Father's name isn't Jesus. GOD's name hasn't changed. His name is the same forever. (Exo 3:15) And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD [i.e. YHWH] God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations. In our English OT, we simply see '[the] LORD'. However, the Hebrew word is the Tetragrammaton, GOD's four-letter name. It occurs over 6700 times in the OT. His name hasn't changed!

The name of the Son is Jesus! Amen! ... and the name of the Holy Ghost is ???

The Holy Spirit is simply the Spirit of GOD; and especially in the NT, the spirit of 'GOD in Christ'. IT doesn't have a name! The apostles never called on the Spirit, named the Spirit, prayed to the Spirit, etc; much less called IT Jesus! And neither does John 14.26 prove it. (I am making another assumption). Jesus is simply saying that the ONE GOD, the Father, will send the holy spirit in my name i.e. in the authority of Jesus! So just as Jesus came in the authority of GOD his Father, the holy spirit will come in the authority of Jesus from the Father! In the time of Christ, the apostles would fully understand such speech. It is all about authority and agency. The Agent [the one sent] is sent in the name/authority of the Principal [the sender]. The Agent thus acts in the full authority of the Principal, as if, the Agent is the Principal himself. The Jews call this the law of agency. Jesus the Messiah is GOD's fully authorized agent. On the earth, he acted in GOD's authority & stead (cp. Matt 9.8). And now, the holy spirit represents the risen Christ in the church with the same authority. Compare (John 20:21) Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you. Hence, the apostles were sent in the name/authority of Jesus even as Jesus himself was sent in the Father's name.

Only ONE GOD not three! AMEN!

In closing then ... there is solely ONE GOD, the Father, YAHWEH. Jesus the Messiah is the Son of the ONE TRUE GOD [John 17.3], the Son of the Father. [2 John 3] The holy spirit is the spirit of 'GOD in Christ' in the church.

GOD has a name. [Psa 83.18, Exo 3.15, Deut 6.4] YAHWEH!

GOD's Son has a name. [Matt 1.21, Luke 1.31] JESUS!

Jesus the Messiah is the Son of the ONE GOD. AMEN!

Hebrews 1:8

Based upon: http://www.biblicalunitarian.com/modules.php?name=Content&pa=showpage&pid=138

(Please note: my citing of this article does not mean I agree with every subject on www.biblicalunitarian.com esp. in regards to their non-christological teachings)

 

Hebrews 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. (KJV)

1. The English language makes a clear distinction between “God” and “god.” Thus, in English Bibles, the heavenly Father is called “God,” while ... people with God’s authority on earth and important people such as kings, are also called “god” ... The Hebrew and Aramaic languages cannot make the distinction between “God” and “god.” Since Hebrew and Aramaic have only capital letters, every use is “GOD.” Furthermore, although the Greek language has both upper case and lower case letters as English does, the early Greek manuscripts did not blend them. It was the style of writing at the time of the New Testament to make manuscripts in all capital letters, so the Greek manuscripts were, like the Hebrew text, all upper case script. Scholars call these manuscripts “uncials,” and that style was popular until the early ninth century or so when a smaller script was developed for books. [38] Since all texts were in upper case script, if we translated Genesis 1:1 and 2 as it appeared in the Hebrew manuscripts, it would read: IN THE BEGINNING GOD CREATED THE HEAVENS AND THE EARTH NOW THE EARTH WAS FORMLESS AND EMPTY DARKNESS WAS OVER THE SURFACE OF THE DEEP AND THE SPIRIT OF GOD WAS HOVERING OVER THE WATERS. Actually, Bible students should be aware that in both the early Hebrew and Greek manuscripts there were no spaces between the words, no punctuation marks, no chapters and no verses. The original texts of both the Old and New Testament were capital letters all run together, and it looked like this: INTHEBEGINNINGGODCREATEDTHEHEAVENSANDTHEEARTHNOWT HEEARTHWASFORMLESSANDEMPTYDARKNESSWASOVERTHESURFA EOFTHEDEEPANDTHESPIRITOFGODWASHOVERINGOVERTHEWATERS Of course, the entire Bible was hand-printed exactly the same way, with every letter in upper case and no spaces between any words. As you can imagine, that made reading very difficult, and so it was common to read aloud, even when reading to yourself, to make it easier. That is why Philip the Evangelist could hear the Ethiopian eunuch reading the scroll of Isaiah (Acts 8:30). Such a text was hard to read and practically impossible to teach from. Imagine not being able to say, “Turn to Chapter 5, verse 15.” Therefore, divisions in the text began to appear quite early. However, because scribes lived far apart and hand-copied manuscripts, the divisions in the various manuscripts were not uniform. The first standardized divisions between verses came into being around 900 AD., and the modern chapter divisions were made in the 1200s. It should now be very clear that there was just no way to distinguish between “God” and “god” in the early texts, and so it must always be determined from the context whether or not the word “GOD” is referring to the Father or to some lesser being. Although it was usual that the presence of the definite article in the Greek text alerted the reader that the “GOD” being referred to was the Father, this was not always the case ... For example, in 2 Corinthians 4:4, the word “theos” has the definite article, but the verse is referring to the Devil. Context is always the final judge of whether theos should be translated “God” or “god.”   2. The Semitic languages, and both the Latin and Greek spoken by the early Christians, used the word “God” with a broader meaning than we do today. “God” was a descriptive title applied to a range of authorities, including great people, rulers and people acting with God’s authority. In John 10:33, when the Jews challenged Jesus and said he was claiming to be “a god” (mistranslated in most versions as “God”), he answered them by asking them if they had read in the Old Testament that people to whom the word of God came were called “GODS” (and we use all caps here because the earliest texts did. It is hard to escape the modern notion that “God” refers to the True God and “gods” referred to lesser deities). Any study of the words for “God” in both Hebrew and Greek will show that they were applied to people as well as to God. This is strange to English-speaking people because we use “God” in reference only to the true God, but both Hebrew and Greek used “God” of God, great men, other gods, angels and divine beings. It is the context that determines whether “God” or a great person is being referred to. This is actually a cause of occasional disagreement between translators, and they sometimes argue about whether “GOD” refers to God, the Father, or to a powerful person or representative of God. One example of this occurs in Exodus 21:6, which instructs a master whose servant wishes to serve him for life to bring the servant “to Elohim.” The KJV, the NIV and many others believe that the owner of the servant is supposed to bring the servant before the local authorities, and so they translate Elohim as “judges” (see also Ex. 22:8-9 for more examples). Other translators felt that the master was required to bring the servant to God, so they translated Elohim as “God”(e.g., NRSV). Thus, the verse will read, “God” or “judges,” depending on the translation. Hebrews 1:8 is like other verses in that just because the word “theos” (“GOD”) is used does not mean that it refers to the Father. It could easily be referring to “god” in the biblical sense that great men are called “god.” The Septuagint uses the word theos for God, but also for men in places like Psalm 82 where men represent God. The context must be the determining factor in deciding what “GOD” refers to. In this case, in Hebrews that we are studying, the context is clear. Throughout the entire context from Hebrews 1:1, Christ is seen to be lesser than God the Father. Therefore, the use of “theos” here should be translated “god.” 3. The context must determine whether Christ is being referred to as the Supreme Being or just a man with great authority, so it must be read carefully. In this case, however, one need not read far to find that Christ, called “God,” himself has a “God.” The very next verse, Hebrews 1:9, says, “therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions.” Thus, Christ cannot be the supreme God, because the supreme God does not have a God. Furthermore, Christ’s God “set” him above others and “anointed” him. This makes it abundantly clear that the use of theos here in Hebrews is not referring to Christ being the supreme God, but rather a man with great authority under another God. Andrews Norton writes: Here the context proves that the word “God” does not denote the Supreme Being, but is used in an inferior sense. This is admitted by some of the most respectable Trinitarian critics. Thus, the Rev. Dr. Mayer remarks: “Here the Son is addressed by the title God: but the context shows that it is an official title which designates him as a king: he has a kingdom, a throne and a scepter; and in verse 9 he is compared with other kings, who are called his fellows; but God can have no fellows. As the Son, therefore, he is classed with the kings of the earth, and his superiority over them consists in this, that he is anointed with the oil of gladness above them; inasmuch as their thrones are temporary, but his shall be everlasting.” [39] 4. The verse is a quotation from Psalm 45:6,7. The Jews read this verse for centuries and, knowing the flexibility of the word “God,” never concluded that the Messiah would somehow be part of a Triune God. 5. We must note that the verse in the Greek text can also be translated as, “Thy throne is God.” However, because the verse is a reference from the Old Testament, and because we believe that God, the Father, is calling His Christ a “god” (i.e., one with divine authority), there is no need to translate the verse other than, “Thy throne, O god, is forever.” [For further study, read Does the Bible ever refer to Jesus Christ as “God?”] Broughton and Southgate, pp. 196 and 197 Buzzard, pp. 35 Dana, pp. 205 and 206 Farley, pp. 71 and 72 Morgridge, pp. 110 and 111 Norton, pp. 301 and 302 Snedeker, pp. 459-46 38. Bruce Metzger, The Text of the New Testament, Its Transmission, Corruption and Restoration (Oxford University Press, NY, 1992), pp. 8-10. 39. Andrews Norton, Statement of Reasons, p. 301.