"holy spirit"

GOD Almighty is holy. And GOD Almighty is spirit.

And when the Scriptures describe GOD Almighty interacting with His creation, they speak of the "Spirit" moving & coming. However, the spirit of GOD isn't a distinct person/personality/being from GOD; any more than your spirit is distinct from you. The spirit of GOD or "holy spirit" is GOD Himself operating in His creation; it is GOD's personal presence; GOD's mind, power & will in action.

The prophets of old were empowered by GOD, that is, they were empowered by the spirit of GOD; to prophesy and perform miracles. Jesus the Messiah is 'That Prophet'; that ultimate prophet promised in Deut 18.15,18-19.
John states, speaking of Jesus: (John 3:34) For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
Peter concurs: (Acts 10:38) How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him.

Even Jesus' conception came about by the power and spirit of Almighty GOD, as told by Gabriel:
(Luke 1:35) And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also [dio kai, for that reason] that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Hence GOD truly is the Messiah's Father, because GOD begat him by His power, by His spirit.

Now before his crucifixion, resurrection & ascension, Jesus promised:

(John 14:18) I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.
(John 14:23) Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.

Therefore, how was Jesus to come to the believer and abide with believers with his Father?
Answer: Via GOD's holy spirit. The Holy Spirit is now the personal, operational presence of both GOD and His Son; operating in the believer.

Since the holy spirit now represents the presence of GOD & Christ; it can interchangeably be called both
'The spirit of GOD and the spirit of Christ' without contradiction; because it is the selfsame spirit operating.

What follows is some scholarly quotes to reinforce the point I am making.

Spirit of GOD in the OT

Quotations from "Christology in the Making, Second Edition," James Dunn, SCM PRESS LTD, 1996;
hereafter cited as Christology.

Page 133:

In particular, 'Spirit of God' denotes effective divine power ... In other words, on this understanding, Spirit of God is in no sense distinct from God, but is simply the power of God, God himself acting powerfully in nature and upon men.

When however the talk is of the Spirit of God the understanding is not merely of a power from God, but of the power of God, of God himself putting forth efficacious energy. ... Thus, for example,
in 1 Samuel Saul's state can be equally well described as 'the Spirit of the Lord departed from Saul' (16.14) and as 'the Lord had departed from Saul' (18.12). ...

'The Spirit of God' is synonymous with 'the breath of the Almighty' (Job 33.4; 34.14; Psa 33.6) ... And in Isa. 30.1 and 40.13 'my Spirit' and 'the Spirit of the Lord' simply denote the divine 'I'. Particularly in Ezekiel 'the Spirit' is synonymous with the 'hand of the Lord'
(Ezek. 3.14; 8.1-3; 37.1).

Clearly for these writers 'Spirit of God' is simply a way of speaking of God accomplishing his purpose in his world and through men; 'Spirit of God' means God in effective relationship with (and within) his creation. To experience the Spirit of God is to experience God as Spirit.

Quotations from "They never told me This in church!"
Greg S. Deuble, Restoration Fellowship, 2006;
hereafter cited as Deuble.

Page 248:

Even committed Trinitarians like George Eldon Ladd admit:

The ruach Yahweh (Spirit of the Lord) in the Old Testament is not a separate, distinct entity; it is God's power - the personal activity in God's will achieving a moral and religious object. ...
The ruach Yahweh (Spirit of the Lord) is a term for the historical creative action of the one God which, though it defies logical analysis, is always God's action.

G.E. Ladd, A Theology of the New Testament, p. 287.

Quotations from
"The Doctrine of the Trinity: Christianity's Self-Inflicted Wound," Anthony F. Buzzard & Charles F. Hunting, International Scholars Publications, 1998;
hereafter cited as Doctrine of the Trinity.

Page 227:

The Spirit of God is certainly not just an abstract power. Since it is God in action, it is most personal. It is God's outreach. God's Spirit is His personality extended to His creation.

Quotations from "Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian,"
Anthony F. Buzzard, Restoration Fellowship, 1998;
hereafter cited as Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian.

Pages 360-361

It is completely misleading to read into the Bible a third Person, the Holy Spirit. The spirit of Elijah (Luke 1:17) is not a different person from Elijah. Nor is the Spirit of God a different person from the Father. The Holy Spirit is the operational presence of God, His mind and character. It is God (and in the New Testament Jesus) impacting the creation with His creative influence.

The following quotations speak for themselves as testimony against reading into the Bible the conclusions of post-biblical creeds.

"Although the spirit is often described in personal terms, it seems quite clear that the sacred writers [of the Hebrew Scriptures] never conceived or presented this spirit as a distinct person."
Citing Edmund J. Fortman, The Triune God, Baker, 1972, p. 9.

"Nowhere in the Old Testament do we find any clear indication of a Third Person."
Citing The Catholic Encyclopedia, 15:49.

"The Jews never regarded the spirit as a person; nor is there any solid evidence that any Old Testament writer held this view."
Citing Fortman, The Triune God, p. 6.

"The Old Testament clearly does not envisage God's spirit as a person ... God's spirit is simply God's power. If it is sometimes represented as being distinct from God, it is because the breath of Yahweh acts exteriorly."
Citing New Catholic Encyclopedia, 14:574.

Spirit of GOD in the NT

Christology, p. 138

But his [Jesus'] concept of the Spirit of God seems to have been wholly in line with what we have found to be the consistent Jewish understanding -
'Spirit of God' as a way of explaining an experience of inspiration and effective power as coming directly from God himself.

Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 228

To ask whether in the New Testament the spirit is a person in the modern sense of the word would be like asking whether the spirit of Elijah is a person.
The Spirit of God is of course personal; it is God's dunamis [power] in action. But the Holy Spirit is not a person, existing independently of God; it is a way of speaking about God's personally acting in history, or of the Risen Christ's personally acting in the life and witness of the Church.
The New Testament (and indeed patristic thought generally) nowhere represents the Spirit, any more than the wisdom of God, as having independent personality.
Citing Alan Richardson,
Introduction to the Theology of the New Testament
(London: SCM Press, 1958), p. 120.

Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian, p. 152

For Paul and the other New Testament writers the spirit of God was not a different Person from God Himself, any more than "the spirit of Elijah" (2 Kings 2:15; Luke 1:17) meant a person other than Elijah.
The spirit of God was the operational presence and power of God or, after the ascension, of Jesus operating in the world in various ways. God and Jesus thus share a common spirit ...
Jesus being the supreme and unique example of a human being endowed with the spirit of his Father.

Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian, p. 361-362

Paul had no doctrine of the Trinity. The Spirit of God, or Holy Spirit, was for him (apart from the identification with the Risen Christ) the energy of the Divine nature, universal in its operation, influencing the will and the intelligence of men, the source of the sevenfold gifts described in Isaiah 11:2.
Citing Dictionary of the Apostolic Church, 1:189.

Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian, p. 109

Karl Rahner. When this leading Roman Catholic theologian produced an exhaustive examination of the word "God" in the New Testament he concluded with these extraordinary admissions:

Nowhere in the New Testament is there to be found a text with o theos which has unquestionably to be referred to the Trinitarian God as a whole existing in three Persons. ...
In addition, o theos is never used in the New Testament to speak of the holy spirit.

Karl Rahner, Theological Investigations, Helicon, 1963, 1:143.

Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 234

Acts 5:3,4 ... The text equates lying to the Holy Spirit with lying to God. The Holy Spirit here means the power and authority invested by God in Peter. Those who lie to Apostles speaking in the name of God and by His Spirit are rightly said to lie to the Spirit and to God. The point is confirmed by a comment from Paul: "He who despises us despises not men but God, who has given us His Spirit" (1 Thess. 4:8).

Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 228

Why is it that in no text of Scripture is the Holy Spirit worshipped or prayed to? Not once does the Holy Spirit send greetings to the churches. When the Apostles write to their churches, greetings are always sent from two persons, the Father and the Son.

Deuble, p. 272

We note that nowhere in Scripture is the Holy Spirit prayed to or worshipped (as in today's churches), nowhere is the Holy Spirit praised in song (as is typical in today's "worship" meetings), nowhere is the Holy Spirit said to send his personal greetings with those of the Father and the Lord Jesus to the churches when the apostles write their letters, and nowhere is the Holy Spirit given a personal name.

Deuble, p. 274

When I look back on those days when I reasoned that the Spirit is a third member of the Deity because the Scripture shows the Spirit having personal qualities such as mind, emotion and will I feel ashamed. If only I had understood that the Bible is a Hebrew book my eyes would not have been so blurred. We must stop deifying "the Spirit" as a third person, co-equal and co-eternal God, and repent of worship of a false god. This Nicene, un-Hebrew, extra-biblical doctrine of the Spirit as "the Lord and giver of life; who ... with the Father and the Son together is worshipped and glorified" as the third member of a triune God is a distraction at best, and a false god at worst.

Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian, p. 139

In the New Testament the Spirit is never regarded as a third Divine Person. The Spirit is the operational power and presence of God. No one in the Bible ever prayed to the holy spirit or praised the holy spirit. The strange appeal "Come, holy spirit," heard in charismatic quarters today, as though the spirit is a third member of the Godhead, is utterly alien to Scripture.

Spirit of Christ

Christology, p. 146, 147

The exalted Christ and the Spirit of God are one and the same so far as the believer's experience is concerned;
'Spirit' and 'Christ' are alternative ways of describing God's approach to men now ... the Spirit remains primarily the power of God (however much it manifests the character of Christ);

Christology, p. 147-148

With John too ... he seems to understand the coming of the Spirit as fulfilling the promise of Christ's return (particularly John 14.15-26) and to envisage the 'other Paraclete' as 'the presence of Jesus when Jesus is absent'.

Christology, p. 148

For the NT writers generally the Spirit is the Spirit of God, the effective power of God himself. This is obviously true when speaking about Jesus' conception and of his ministry, but it is also true in speaking of the Spirit after Jesus' exaltation. However much the Spirit can be understood as the Spirit of Christ, the Spirit is still primarily the Spirit of God, God himself reaching out to and touching, vitalizing, dynamizing man at the heart of his being.

Christology, p. 149

The Spirit can now be thought of as the Spirit of Christ - that is, as that power of God which is to be recognized by the consciousness of oneness with Christ (and in Christ) which it engenders and by the impress of the character of Christ which it begins to bring about the life of the believer.

Christology, p. 160

Now the Spirit becomes the presence of Christ, the Spirit of Christ; now Christ (in Christ, with Christ, through Christ) becomes an alternative way of speaking of the immanence of God in human experience;

Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 231-232

The comments of the Trinitarian James Denny are instructive:

What strikes us here is the new name given to the Spirit - "another Comforter."
It is indeed only the name which is new. In idea it answers closely to the only promise of the Spirit which we find in the Synoptic Gospels. The expression "another Comforter" implies that the disciples have already had experience of one, namely Jesus himself.
As long as he was with them their strength was reinforced from him and when he goes, his place is taken by the Spirit. There is another power with them now which does for them what Jesus did before. Yet is it really another? In 1 John 2:1 it is Jesus who is the Paraclete [Comforter], even after Pentecost, and even here (John 14:18),
he says, "I come to you."
The presence of the Spirit is Jesus' own presence in Spirit.

"Holy Spirit," Dictionary of Christ and the Gospels (Edinburgh: T & T Clark, 1917), 742.

Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 229

(Rom. 8:9). In the same passage Paul speaks of the Spirit interceding for the saints. Since he does not elsewhere recognize the Spirit as a third person it is reasonable to think that he sees no difference between the intercession of Christ mentioned in the same context (Rom. 8:27,34). While Christ himself is with the the Father, his Spirit is active in the hearts of believers.

Deuble, p. 264-266

This language has OT pedigree. One time God took of His Spirit from Moses and distributed it: "Then the LORD came down in the cloud and spoke to him; and He took of the spirit which was upon him and placed it upon the 70 elders. And it came about that when the Spirit rested upon them, they prophesied"
(Num. 11:17,25).
This has obvious implications and parallels for our interpretation of the events of Pentecost ...

The Elijah story from 2 Kings also provides a background for understanding the Jewish significance of Pentecost and the coming of the Spirit. In the Hebrew Scriptures Elijah ascended bodily via a fiery chariot drawn by fiery horses (2 Kings 2:11). The prophet had promised to bestow on his disciple Elisha a "double share" of his enormous spirit. ... so Elisha walked away from that scene in the spirit and power of Elijah. The sons of the prophets affirmed this, for when Elisha returned to them they proclaimed,
"the spirit of Elijah rests upon Elisha" (2 Kings 2:15).

The background and the obvious parallels to the ascension of Jesus and the Pentecostal outpouring of the Spirit in wind and fire are obvious. On the day of Pentecost God the Father took of the Spirit of the resurrected Jesus and it came like a "rushing wind" and appeared like "tongues as of fire distributing themselves, and it rested on each one" of the disciples
(Acts 2:2-3).
As the elders received of Moses' spirit and prophesied, and as Elisha receives a "double portion" of Elijah's spirit and went out in his master's power, just so - after Pentecost - do the disciples preach and go out in the spirit and power of their resurrected Lord to carry on his Gospel work.

In Jewish thought, then, Luke is saying that the risen Lord Jesus is greater than Moses and greater than Elijah. God's locus of activity is now on a new Israel, the body of believers. The Spirit of Christ now rests on the disciples and they will prophesy and go in power as they proclaim "the word."
In Jewish parlance, there is no thought here that the Holy Spirit that Christ sends is the third member of the Godhead, any more than the spirit that God took from Moses or the spirit that Elijah sent on Elisha, was a third member of the holy Trinity.

The helper which is the Holy Spirit of God describes the combined activity of the Father and the Son through their personal presence operating for our benefit.

Trinity Sunday?!?

As the majority of Christendom look forward to
This Sunday, to repeat a manmade creed and to celebrate their mythical, so-called Triune, Three-In-One God viz. The Trinity, which is as one person described,
Christianity's Self-Inflicted Wound;

I believe the following two quotes sum up this Sunday's vain undertaking.

1. ANONYMOUS i.e. NAME WITHHELD:
   
   “Christ, according to the faith, is the second person in the Trinity, the Father being the first and the Holy Ghost the third. Each of these persons is God. Christ is his own father and his own son. The Holy Ghost is neither father nor son, but both. The son was begotten by the father, but existed before he was begotten--just the same before as after ...

   So, it is declared that the Father is God, and the Son God, and the Holy Ghost God, and that these three Gods make one God.
   

   According to the celestial multiplication table, once one is three, and three times one is one, and according to heavenly subtraction, if we take two from three, three are left. The addition is equally peculiar, if we add two to one, we have but one ...
   
   Nothing ever was, nothing ever can be more perfectly idiotic and absurd than the dogma of the Trinity.”
   
   
   

2. Thomas Jefferson's Letter to Francis Adrian Van der Kemp, 30 July, 1816:
   
   "Ridicule is the only weapon which can be used against unintelligible propositions. Ideas must be distinct before reason can act upon them; and
   no man ever had a distinct idea of the trinity. It is the mere Abracadabra of the mountebanks calling themselves the priests of Jesus."

FAQ ONE

Here are some proposed answers to a set of typical questions that one would find posted on the Net, which supposedly prove that "Jesus is God"

As a preamble, I would recommend one and all to view the video at The Human Jesus
This video will give you a good basis as to my approach.

FAQ

If Jesus is not God, then explain...

1. Why Thomas calls Jesus 'God' in John 20:28?
   Why does God call Jesus 'God' in Heb. 1:8?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   Just as Almighty GOD could make Moses, 'God' to Pharaoh
   [Exo 7.1, 4.16];
   and just as men were called Gods by Almighty GOD's unbroken word [Psa 82.6, John 10.34-36];
   Jesus the Messiah indeed can be called "God" without himself being Almighty GOD.
   
   Many Bible readers do not realize that elohim/theos/god were much more flexible words in Biblical times.
   These words didn't solely denote Almighty GOD.
   These words were also used to denote GOD's representatives & judges.
   
   Jesus even used Psa. 82 in John 10.34ff to show in what sense he can indeed
   Messianicly and judicially be called "God"; thus John 20.28.
   Men therefore are indeed called "God" by Almighty GOD in Scripture. Why?
   Because they were meant, especially as judges & kings, to represent Him!
   
   Therefore, Jesus the Messiah is GOD's ultimate representative, judge & plenipotentiary, and as such can also be called 'God' in that context!

2. Why does John the apostle state that Jesus was the Word which was God that became flesh (John 1:1,14)?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   Jesus is indeed GOD's word made flesh.
   GOD's word made flesh ... not GOD made flesh!
   GOD spoke everything into existence.
   [Psa 33.6,9]
   Thus everything that exists came into existence by GOD's spoken word.
   GOD's word is GOD's self-expression.
   IT totally represents Him.
   
   In the fulness of time [Gal 4.4], GOD's word became flesh, as the man Christ Jesus.
   Jesus therefore is GOD's word made flesh. (cp. 1 John 1.1-2)
   
   Let me also quote Colin Brown of Fuller Seminary:
   "It is a common but patent misreading of the opening of John's Gospel to read it as if it said: 'In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God and the Son was God' (John 1:1). What has happened here is the substitution of Son for Word (Greek logos), and thereby the Son is made a member of the Godhead which existed from the beginning."
   
   See also Concerning John 1:1

3. Why is the phrase "Call upon the name of the LORD" (Hebrew, YHWH, i.e., Joel 2:32) used only of God on the OT, and translated into the Greek in the LXX as "Call upon the name of the LORD (Greek, KURIOS)," applied to Jesus in the NT (Rom 10:13) if Jesus is not God in flesh?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   To begin with there is a certain principle in the Scriptures that one needs to be aware of.
   The Jews call it, the law of agency
   They have a maxim for it ...
   "A person's agent is regarded as the person himself."
   (Ned. 72B; Kidd, 41b)
   
   Jesus the Messiah is GOD's ultimate agent, His plenipotentiary, His shaliach.
   
   Using the principle of agency (a principle that is reflected throughout the scriptures, especially in regards to angels);
   Jesus, the agent of GOD thus totally represents Almighty GOD.
   And especially now he has been glorified, and made both Lord & Christ, by GOD Almighty
   [Acts 2.36, 10.36]; and is even set at GOD's right hand;
   he can now function for GOD as His ultimate agent.
   So much so, that things prophesied to be done by Almighty GOD in the OT, will in actuality be fulfilled by Jesus the Messiah, GOD's agent in the NT, without contradiction.
   Because A person's agent is regarded as the person himself.
   
   The 'person' in this case is GOD Almighty.
   His agent is Jesus the Messiah.
   
   Hence, the Old and New Testament Parallels.
   
   Thus GOD Almighty will indeed fulfil all remaining prophecies through Jesus Christ, His human agent & representative.
   As His agent, Jesus speaks for GOD and acts for GOD.
   However, he himself is NOT GOD! He is GOD's human, now glorified, Son
   
   So upon calling & believing on the name of the Lord Jesus, GOD's agent; one is in turn calling on & believing on YHWH GOD Almighty, via His agent.
   
   As Jesus himself said,

   (John 12:44) Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me.
   

4. Why does the apostle John say that Jesus was , "... calling God His own Father, making Himself equal to God," (John 5:18)?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   John is recording the Jews' accusation!
   Then he records Jesus' rebuttal.
   From verse 19 onwards, Jesus categorically shows that he is not equal to Almighty GOD, rather, he is subordinate to Him. And everything he possesses, is because GOD his Father as given it to him!
   (John 5:19) Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
   
   Ask yourself? What kind of omnipotent GOD can do nothing of himself? Hmmm!

5. What did Jesus say that caused the Pharisees to claim that Jesus was making Himself out to be God. How was it possible for Jesus to know all things (John 21:17)?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   Everything Jesus said and did, was to show that he was indeed, the promised Messiah, the Son of the Living GOD, the King of the Jews. Sadly, as time went by, Jesus stated to his unbelieving audience, in one form or another, things such as:
   (John 8:43-44) Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word. 44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
   (John 8:47) He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.
   
   Is it any wonder then that the Pharisees misunderstood him?
   That is why one ought not to based their theology on the Pharisees' words & accusations!!
   
   
   As for Jesus knowing all things ...
   
   Ask yourself, how did Elisha know that Gehazi was lying and know of the greed in his heart [2 Kings 5.19-27]?
   (See also 2 Kings 6.12) How did the prophet Nathan know of David's secret sin? [2 Sam 12.7] Why did people assume that if Jesus was indeed a prophet, he would know what manner of woman was before him in Luke 7.39?
   
   Answer: Because the ONE GOD who knows all things reveals the secret things of mankind [cp. Dan 2.18,28,47] to His prophets. This was common knowledge.
   
   Likewise, everything Jesus said and did, was to show that he was indeed, That Prophet of Deut 18.15ff.
   
   Thus, Jesus knew all things which were revealed to him by GOD his Father!
   If GOD did not reveal something to him, then Jesus would not know it e.g.
   (Mark 13:32) But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.
   
   Jesus isn't lying. He doesn't know! Remember, he said (John 15:15) Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.
   
   Thus, he cannot make known what he doesn't know! i.e. What he hasn't heard of his Father!
   See also
   (Acts 1:6-7) When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel? 7 And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.
   
   And in Rev. 1:1, Almighty GOD gave Jesus, a Revelation!
   Jesus obviously then, is not omniscient! Even now!
   

6. How can Jesus know all men (John 16:30)?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   Jesus knew all men in relation to what was revealed to him by GOD his Father!
   See the above comment (No. 5).

7. How can Jesus be everywhere (Matt. 28:20)?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   Via GOD's holy spirit. GOD did a similar thing in Nums. 11.24-30 with Moses.
   Now He is done a new thing and far greater thing with the new Moses, our Lord Jesus Christ.
   Jesus is indeed, actually in Heaven.
   However through the spirit of GOD, he and GOD can operate in the church; and via the spirit of GOD, Jesus can be with us all. [John 14.23]

8. How can Jesus, the Christ, dwell in you (Col. 1:27)?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   Via the spirit (see the above comment, no. 7)
   Thus, it is the spirit of Christ that dwells in us whilst Christ is in actuality, in Heaven.
   
   (John 16:7) Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
   (John 14:17) Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.
   (Acts 2:33) Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
   (1 Cor 15:45) And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
   (Gal 4:6) And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.

9. How can Jesus be the exact representation of the Nature of God (Heb. 1:3)?
   
   My answer:
   
   
   Almighty GOD made him so!
   BTW a representation of something/someone is not the actual thing it represents.
   
   Jesus is GOD's word made flesh; he is the image of the invisible GOD.
   [Col 1.15, 2 Cor. 4.4]
   GOD made Jesus, be the one who totally represents Him. GOD made him, His perfect image, His perfect reflection.
   
   Adam should have been this true image! Alas he was marred by sin & disobedience.
   Nevertheless, where Adam failed, Christ succeeded. He is the new man, the Last Adam!

10. How can Jesus be eternal (Micah 5:1-2)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    He isn't!
    It is a translation issue ... The Hebrew word owlam should have been translated:
    of ancient times, of days of old
    e.g.
    Revised Standard Version Micah 5:2
    But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, who are little to be among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days.
    
    New Jerusalem Bible Micah 5:1
    But you (Bethlehem) Ephrathah, the least of the clans of Judah, from you will come for me a future ruler of Israel whose origins go back to the distant past, to the days of old.
    
    See Concerning Micah 5:2
    
    Also note (Micah 5:4) And he shall stand and feed in the strength of YAHWEH, in the majesty of the name of YAHWEH his God; and they shall abide: for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth.
    
    Seeing that vss. 2-4 is speaking about the Messiah. Agreed? Again, another Scriptural proof that the Messiah was never meant to be understood as GOD Himself!
    No, the Messiah has a GOD!
    GOD Almighty is the Messiah's GOD!
    [John 20.22, Rev 3.12, Heb 1.9]
    Thus the Messiah is NOT Almighty GOD!
    
    BTW, Jesus is indeed now immortal.
    The first immortalized man to be raised from the dead.
    The first of many.
    [Rom 8.29, Col 1.18]

11. How can Jesus be the one who gives eternal life (John 10:27-28)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    Because Almighty GOD, his Father, has given 'eternal life' to him to give to others!
    
    (John 5:26) For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;
    (John 17:1-3) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: 2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. 3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
    
    Note, Jesus knows solely ONE GOD! He identifies his Father,
    as the only true GOD.
    Having Eternal Life therefore, is dependent on one having a proper understanding of GOD and His Son!

12. How can He be our only Lord and Master (Jude 4)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    Almighty GOD made him so!
    (Acts 2:36) Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

13. How can Jesus be called the Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6) if there is only one God in existence (Isaiah 44:6-8; 45:5)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    Likewise, how can Moses be called God?
    [Exo 7.1, 4.16]
    Likewise, how can the human judges be called God?
    [Exo 21.6, 22.8-9, 28, Psa 82.6]
    
    See No. 1 concerning the words elohim/theos/god
    
    BTW, the Hebrew of Isa 9.6 is el gibbor
    It doesn't mean Almighty GOD. It means a mighty warrior, a great or mighty man.
    In the context of Isaiah 9:6, The Brown, Driver and Briggs, Hebrew and English Lexicon of the Old Testament, p.42, the best lexicon around, informs us that ‘el gibbor’ in Isaiah 9:6 means
    "divine hero (as reflecting the divine majesty)".
    
    el gibbor is actually used in plural in Ezek 32.21, translated "the strong among the mighty" in the KJV,
    "the mighty chiefs" in the RSV,NRSV.
    Hence, another proof that el gibbor is a title used to denote men/humans.
    
    For more info on Isaiah 9:6 see also
    
    Isaiah 9:6: What is Meant by the Messiah being 'God' and 'Father'?

14. How can Jesus be called the Mighty God (Isaiah 9:6) and "God" also be called the Mighty God in Isaiah 10:21?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    See my comments about Isaiah 10.21 at Concerning Isaiah 9:6
    

15. How was Jesus able to raise Himself from the dead (John 2:19-21)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    He wasn't able! He didn't raise himself from the dead!!
    Over 20 times, the NT makes it categorically clear that GOD Almighty, his Father, raised Jesus His Son from the dead.
    This testimony is recorded by people who ought to know ... the apostles!
    
    Note: (John 2:22) When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.
    
    Thus, after he had risen from the dead; the disciples understood what Jesus meant in verse 19.
    Jesus was speaking prophetically. A prophet would sometimes speak in the first person (grammatically that is) of what GOD was going to do. Thus the prophet would speak as if the prophet was himself, GOD!
    
    Again, this is the law/principle of agency!
    Moses does this in Deut. Chap 29. Moses is speaking and by verse 5 he is sounding as if he is himself, GOD! Also in Chap. 11, Moses is speaking and again in verses 14-15, he speaks as if he is GOD himself! This is how a Prophet would sometimes speak.
    
    Thus, Jesus spoke prophetically about his resurrection.
    Jesus died for our sins.
    NOTE: GOD ALMIGHTY CANNOT DIE!
    
    GOD ALMIGHTY raised Jesus from the dead.
    We must believe this!
    Rom 10.9 ... believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead ...
    
    (1 Cor 15:15) Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
    
    See also DID JESUS CHRIST RAISE HIMSELF FROM THE DEAD?

16. How can Jesus create all things (Col. 1:16-17), yet it is God who created all things by Himself (Isaiah 44:24)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    Firstly, the context of Colossians 1 is about the new creation i.e. the future Coming Kingdom of GOD; hence, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers.
    
    Colossians 1 is simply a matter of translation.
    The first word translated BY in the KJV text of verse 16 is the Greek word EN;
    it should have been translated IN not BY!
    
    The 2nd word translated BY is the Greek word DIA.
    It should have been translated THROUGH not BY!
    
    Hence,
    
    Col 1:16 for IN him were all things created ... all things were created THROUGH him, and for him; e.g.
    
    RSV for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities--all things were created through him and for him.
    
    ASV for in him were all things created, in the heavens and upon the earth, things visible and things invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers; all things have been created through him, and unto him;
    
    (The KJV translators simply translated en & dia as BY in order to give a biased impression that Jesus is the Creator)
    
    God created all things IN His Son because His Son is the firstborn, the heir of all things and the focal point of God's creation.
    Paul spoke of God choosing believers IN Christ before the foundation of the world (Eph 1:4). Since God had this foreknown plan revolving around His Son (1 Pet 1:20) it can be said that God created everything IN, THROUGH and FOR his Son.

17. How can Jesus search the hearts and minds of the people (Rev. 2:23)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    Again, how did Elisha know what was in Gehazi's heart? Because GOD enabled him to know.
    
    Likewise at a far greater scale:
    GOD has glorified Jesus the Messiah and given him such authority
    [Matt 28.18]
    Especially seeing that now, Jesus is the High Priest of our profession in the heavens.
    [Heb 3.1, 4.14]
    He indeed needs to know what's in our hearts.
    
    Remember, everything Jesus knows is because of what GOD has revealed to him.
    Everything that Jesus can do is because of what GOD has enabled him to do.
    
    However, he is still the man Christ Jesus.
    
    (1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men,
    the man Christ Jesus;

18. Why was Jesus worshiped (Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6) when He says to worship God only (Matt. 4:10)? (same Greek word for worship is used in each place.)
    
    My answer:
    
    
    Many Bible readers assume that "Only Almighty GOD can be worshiped!"
    Actually, this is not so!
    
    This is another translation issue.
    
    The words translated "worship" in our Bibles, Hebrew shachah and Greek proskuneo can indeed be used in ref. to human beings.
    These words are generally translated,
    "bow down, make reverence to, do reverence to, make obeisance to";
    especially in regards to kings & dignitaries.
    See for example how the Hebrew word is used in regards to Saul, David and Solomon, at The Worship of Christ
    
    Sadly, the translators weren't consistent when translating the Greek word proskuneo in regards to the ultimate human king, the King Messiah Jesus, the promised King of the Jews, the destined Prophet of Deut. 18!
    (Thus translating it as worship giving us English readers the impression that, therefore, Jesus must be GOD!)
    
    His disciples and people in general did indeed make reverence/obesiance to Jesus of Nazareth; because he is "That Prophet" ... he is the Messiah, the Son of GOD, the King of Israel.
    [John 1.49]
    And one day ...
    (Phil 2:10-11) That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; 11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
    
    Therefore,
    Jesus was and is worshiped AS the Lord Messiah, the Son of the Living GOD!
    He is never worshiped AS Almighty GOD
    
    See The Worship of Christ
    

19. In the OT God was seen (Exodus 6:2-3; 24:9-11; Num. 12:6-9; Acts 7:2), yet no man can see God (Exodus 33:20; John 1:18). It was not the Father that was seen in the OT (John 6:46). Who, then were they seeing?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    No man indeed as seen the ONE GOD, the Father, at anytime.
    [John 1.18, 5.37, 1 John 4.12]
    What the patriarchs & OT saints saw were angels.
    Angels represented the invisible GOD especially in the OT.
    To see any angel was as if one saw GOD Himself.
    See for example, Judg. 13.21-22.
    
    An angel of GOD would speak for GOD & act for GOD
    See Acts 7.30,35; 7.53; Gal 3.19; Heb 2.2
    
    GOD spoke in various ways via angels, etc, in the OT; however, it was not until these last days that He spoke via a Son. Why? Because Jesus wasn't begotten/conceived until these last days! He didn't exist in OT times.
    (Heb 1:1-2) God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, ...

20. Then why did Jesus claim the divine name, "I AM", for Himself in John 8:58?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    He didn't! There is absolutely no connection at all between Exo 3.14 & John 8.58.
    
    QUOTE:
    John 8:58. ... The Greek phrase in the LXX reads ego eimi ho hown, which is not the title clamed by Jesus. Further, this simple phrase ego eimi is everywhere else rendered "I am he."
    What Jesus had just claimed here was that Messiah’s day was a reality to Abraham through the eyes of faith. But Messiah "existed" as the supreme subject of God’s plan long before the birth of Abraham.
    "Before Abraham came to be, I am he" is a profound statement about God’s original plan for the world centered in Jesus, whom John can also describe as "crucified before the foundation of the world" (Rev. 13:8). If Jesus was "crucified before Abraham" he himself may be said to have "existed" in the eternal counsels of God, for he was appointed as Savior of the world before the birth of Abraham.
    
    ...
    In fact, the majority of the translations since the KJV recognize this as the simple meaning of what Jesus said and meant by supplying in italics the word "he." "I am he." This is the correct sense, just as in the next chapter when the blind man is asked whether he is the one who used to sit and beg. He says ego eimi, and it means, "I am he" or "I am the one you are talking about." Nobody would dare suggest that he too was claiming to be the "I am what I am" of Exodus. Yet that is the very forced understanding your "authority" would have us adopt. To confirm this as the true meaning, have a look at John 4. The woman at the well in verse 25 says to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called the Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us."
    In verse 26, "Jesus said to her, ‘I who speak to you am [then even the KJV supplies in italics the obvious meaning] he’"
    (i.e., the Messiah, not God!).
    Really, this is elementary to any "authority," and to teach otherwise seems quite reprehensible.
    ENDQUOTE
    
    Source: The Trinity No Longer Makes Sense

21. Then why did Jesus say you must honor him even as you honor the Father (John 5:23)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    Because Jesus is the Son of the Living GOD. He is GOD's appointed Messiah, King and Agent.
    [Psa 2.2,6-7,12]
    And as such is worthy of such honor, because GOD decreed it so.
    Even the angels of GOD must give him honor. [Heb 1.6]
    In fact,
    (Phil 2:9-11) Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: 10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; 11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

22. Then why is it that both the Father and the Son give life (John 5:21)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    (John 10:30) I and my Father are one.
    That is, they are one in unity and purpose
    GOD now operates thru His Son.

23. Then why did Jesus bear witness of Himself (John 8:18; 14:6)?
    
    My answer:
    
    
    (John 8:15-19) Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man. 16 And yet if I judge, my judgment is true: for I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me. 17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. 18 I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. 19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.
    
    
    This answer speaks for itself!!
    
    

    ---

Dear Reader, hopefully, the above answers will aid you in your quest for the truth of the ONE GOD and His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord.

Again, I recommend the video at  The Human Jesus for further consideration.
 

The Compassionate Conservative- Loving Christ, Loving Others: The Most Dangerous Heretics in The Christian Church

It is never nice when one takes the time to comment, and then the blog administrator simply deletes it!
:-( :-(

Well ... these things happen! Nevertheless, I think my comment is a keeper; therefore, I have reproduced it here for your consideration.

The following link is a blog about the shortcomings of the Oneness doctrine:
The Compassionate Conservative- Loving Christ, Loving Others: The Most Dangerous Heretics in The Christian Church

My comment highlights the fact that the trinity also suffers very similar shortcomings in equal measure to the Oneness doctrine. Here is my comment:

Yep. In many ways, the Oneness doctrine is indeed wrong.

But sadly, the trinity doctrine is also equally wrong in this regard:

that both Oneness and trinity doctrines try to make Jesus of Nazareth, the Messiah our Lord, into Almighty GOD!!
And both doctrines state that you must believe that the Lord Jesus is Almighty GOD to be saved!!
In this regard, both doctrines do err and are scripturally wrong.
IMHO!

Both doctrines appeared hundreds of years after the ascension of Christ.
Both doctrines try to explain how Jesus can be both God and man at the same time!! The Godman!!

But the original faith which was once delivered unto the saints [Jude 3] did not suffer from this problem.

The original faith has always been
that there is solely ONE GOD,
the Father.
And Jesus of Nazareth, is the one man, the one human being whom Almighty GOD raised from the dead, made him, both Lord and Christ, and exalted him to His right hand.
Hence, Jesus of Nazareth is
the Lord Jesus Christ,
a man approved of Almighty GOD,
who is currently at the right of the ONE GOD in the heavens.
Whom we await for his return.

(1 Cor 8:4) ... there is none other God but one.
(1 Cor 8:6) But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

(1 Th 1:9-10) For they themselves show of us what manner of entering in we had unto you, and how ye turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God; 10 And to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead, even Jesus, which delivered us from the wrath to come.


Hundreds of years after the pure, true, apostolic faith was propagated;
Greek, Hellenistic and pagan philosophy/doctrines changed the human Jesus into a demigod then into a godman.
And in response, both the doctrines of the trinity and Oneness tried to solve this self-inflicted problem!

The solution then, is to return to the pure faith and doctrine as taught in the Scriptures:
that there is solely ONE GOD, the Father.
And there is solely one man, one human, whom the ONE GOD has made
"Lord of all", the man Messiah Jesus.

And indeed the day is coming where ...
(Phil 2:11) And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

May I suggest that one can prayerfully begin this journey of recovery by viewing a helpful video at

The Human Jesus

Yours In Messiah
Adam Pastor

The man Christ Jesus, GOD's perfect sacrifice

This blog is based on a couple of posts from another forum whereby I answered the following questions:

If Jesus is not God then who is he? another god?
a man?
(All other questions asked are showed in red.)

My response:

A man! Now, a glorified immortalized man!
The Firstfruits!

(John 1:30) This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me.
(John 4:29) Come, see a man, which told me all things that ever I did: is not this the Christ?
(John 8:40) But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.
(John 9:11) He answered and said, A man that is called Jesus made clay, and anointed mine eyes, and said unto me, Go to the pool of Siloam, and wash: and I went and washed, and I received sight.
(John 10:33) The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
[Our Master Rabbi Jesus the Messiah explains in verses 34-35 using Psalms 82; in what sense he can indeed be called 'god']
(Acts 2:22) Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:
(Acts 17:31) Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.
(Rom 5:15) But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
(1 Cor 15:21-22) For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
[HINT: Adam was the man via which death came;
Christ was the man via which resurrection came!]
(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

So if Jesus is simply a Man, as you have pointed out, then he was born with Sin in him...therefore he was not a perfect sacrifice?

My response:

You appear to have a low view of what being 'a Man' is!
I have already shown verses which state that Jesus is 'a man'.
Therefore, let me start of by saying, that the first man God created was 'Adam'. Agreed!
He was 'a man'! Agreed!

Now ... when God made Adam was he made with Sin? NO!
Adam was a man made without sin! Agreed!!

However, when Adam was tempted, he succumbed, and committed sin (i.e. transgressed GOD's commandment) and because of this, death came into the world. [Rom 5:12].

GOD, therefore promised a solution:
(Gen 3:15) And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
(Rom 5:15) But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
(Rom 5:17) For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
(Rom 5:19) For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
(1 Cor 15:21) For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.

One "man's" disobedience caused the mess that we are in.
GOD's promised another 'man' whereby through this "man's" obedience many will be made righteous.

Jesus was and is THAT MAN!!
Hence Paul calls him the second man [1 Cor 15:47] and the last Adam [1 Cor 15:45];
and Paul compares and juxtaposes the two men [Rom Ch. 5; 1 Cor 15:21; Phil. Ch. 2]

Now we know that Jesus is GOD's only-begotten son; generated & begotten by the power of the Spirit of GOD; and to whom the Spirit of GOD was given without measure [Luke 1:35, John 3:34]

So let not even bother with the "just a man or mere man" argument
Although Jesus is indeed a man; he isn't just a man!

He is the Son of GOD; GOD's only-begotten; GOD's chosen one;
GOD's Anointed one (hence His Messiah); he is GOD's Lamb ...
GOD's perfect sacrifice for all sinners.

(John 3:16) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
(John 1:29) The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
(John 1:36) And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God!
(John 4:42) And said unto the woman, Now we believe, not because of thy saying: for we have heard him ourselves, and know that this is indeed the Christ, the Saviour of the world.

Now in the OT, we can see what the qualifications for a sacrificial lamb are.
(Exo 12:5) Your lamb shall be without blemish ... (Passover Lamb; cp. 1 Cor 5:7)
(Lev 1:10) And if his offering be of the flocks, namely, of the sheep ... he shall bring it a male without blemish.
(Lev 22:19-21) Ye shall offer at your own will a male without blemish, of the beeves, of the sheep, or of the goats. 20 But whatsoever hath a blemish, that shall ye not offer: for it shall not be acceptable for you. 21 And whosoever offereth a sacrifice of peace offerings unto YAHWEH to accomplish his vow, or a freewill offering in beeves or sheep, it shall be perfect to be accepted; there shall be no blemish therein.
(Num 28:3) And thou shalt say unto them, This is the offering made by fire which ye shall offer unto YAHWEH; two lambs of the first year without spot day by day, for a continual burnt offering.
(Deu 17:1) Thou shalt not sacrifice unto YAHWEH thy God any bullock, or sheep, wherein is blemish, or any evilfavouredness: for that is an abomination unto YAHWEH thy God.

As you can see, the general consensus is that the sacrifice had to be 'perfect'; i.e. without spot or blemish!

Remember, the first Adam ... (Gen 1:27) So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. (Gen 1:31) And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day.

Well, here comes the Last Adam, Jesus!
Like, the first Adam, he was tempted ... therefore does 'this man' qualify as a 'perfect sacrifice'?

• (2 Cor 4:4) ... Christ, who is the image of God ...
  
• (1 Pet 1:19) But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
  
• (1 Pet 2:22) Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: (cp. Isa 53:9)
  
• (1 John 3:5) And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
  
• (Heb 4:15) For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
  
• (2 Cor 5:21) For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
  
• (Heb 9:14) How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
  
• (Heb 10:12) But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
  
• (Eph 5:2) And walk in love, as Christ also hath loved us, and hath given himself for us an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweetsmelling savour.
  (1 Cor 5:7) Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
  
• See also Luke 1:35 & Heb 7:26
  

It appears so!
The man Christ Jesus was tempted in all points. The man Christ Jesus triumphed accordingly. The man Christ Jesus succeeded where Adam failed. The man Christ Jesus was without spot and blemish throughout his ministry. No guile/deceit was found in him [Isa 53:9; 1 Pet 2:22]. Although he was tempted, he committed no sin. He never disobeyed GOD.

He indeed does qualify as the Lamb of GOD, the perfect sacrifice for man's sins.
Hence (John 3:16) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son ...

GOD gave His Lamb, His perfect sacrifice, the man Christ Jesus.
If GOD could make a sinless man and woman out of the dust of the earth and a rib of a man; the same GOD is more than capable to make a sinless man 'of a woman' [Gal 4:4]; the same Spirit that moved in Gen. 1; is the selfsame Spirit that generated & begat Jesus the Messiah in the womb of Mary.

Therefore Jesus was begotten, conceived, born without sin.

It is down to us ... the onus is on us ... to accept GOD's perfect sacrifice, THE MAN Christ Jesus!

But you said he was a man, you have contradicted yourself. If he is not just a man then what is he?

My response:

I am simply pointing out that Jesus is not just a mere man!
He is a special man. The head of the new human race, so to speak.
As Adam is the head of all those that die; Jesus is the head of all those that live. [1 Cor 15:22]
He is the New Adam.
Additionally, he is NOW an immortal glorified man
Therefore, he is the only 'such man' of his kind (until the First Resurrection).
So in my wording "he is not just a man"; I am simply trying to highlight his pre-eminence, his uniqueness, his greatness.
Jesus is GOD's ultimate representative ... He is truly the archetypical man.
The true 'image of GOD'. [2 Cor 4:4; Col 1:15; Heb 1:3]

You say he is God's only begotten well then he must have some kind of supernatural parts to him right?

My response:

The scriptures say that he is GOD's only begotten [John 1:14]

Jesus is a new 'man'! He is (or I should say 'was') as human as Adam (and Eve) was before the Fall;
flesh and blood [Heb 2:14].
A man who was given (or anointed with) the spirit of GOD without measure. [John 3:34]
He was definitely supernaturally conceived;
for that very reason (dio kai), the angel Gabriel said he would be called the Son of GOD.
[Luke 1:35]
But having supernatural parts???  NO! Jesus is no hybrid or demigod. That sort of thinking comes from pagan Greek philosophy!!

Jesus, rather, is NOW glorified and immortalized, the firstfruits of the dead [1 Cor 15:20, 23].
So he is the first glorified, immortalized man.
In that sense, he is now supernatural because he is the first man to have a spiritual body that comes via Resurrection
[1 Cor 15:42-44]
Natural first, then the Spiritual [1 Cor 15:46]
In the Resurrection, so will all the dead in Christ be in like-manner glorified. Yet all NT saints have been born again of GOD without supernatural parts!! So neither did Jesus, GOD's only-begotten, have any supernatural parts via his birth.

Who raised Jesus from the dead?

(Acts 3:15) And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses.
(Acts 4:10) ... Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead ...
(Acts 13:29-30) And when they had fulfilled all that was written of him, they took him down from the tree, and laid him in a sepulchre. 30 But God raised him from the dead:
(Rom 6:4) ... Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father ...
(Rom 10:9) ... believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead ...
(1 Cor 15:15) Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
(Gal 1:1) ... Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead ...
(Col 2:12) ... the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
(1 Pet 1:3) Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
(1 Pet 1:21) ... do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God.


Who did the Apostles mean by God?
(1 Cor 8:4) ... that there is none other God but one. (6) But to us there is but one God, the Father ...
(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
(Eph 4:6) One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.

Nuff said!!