Adoni Messiah

Saturday, April 25, 2009

"As a man, As God"

"As a man ... As God"

What follows is an extract from an article by a renown Oneness preacher, written in the 20th century.

It is nowadays used as a typical and "classic" set of axioms to proclaim who Jesus supposedly is; therefore, you would quite often hear these statements in Oneness churches & circles.

By GOD's grace I can now see just how incorrect these axioms indeed are.

For the purpose of explaining why I say this, firstly let me show the axioms in full:

"... I want to give a few statements that will make us to recognize the mystery of God.

As a man, He was born in humility;

but as God, He was worshipped by men and angels.

As a man, He was tempted in all points as we are;

but as God, He defeated every power of the devil.

As a man, He sat down on a mountain and spake unto the people;

but as God, He brought peace and comfort to every troubled life.

As a man, He taught the people;

but as God, He forgave their sins.

As a man He grew weary;

but as God, He claimed to have all power in heaven and in earth.

(That must be the Almighty, the only Omnipotent.)

As a man, He walked the paths of men;

but as God, He walked upon the waves of the sea.

As a man, He slept on a pillow in the hinder part of a ship;

but as God, He rebuked the wind and the sea, and they obeyed Him.

As a man, He hungered;

but as God, bread grew and multiplied in His hands.

As a man, He wept at the tomb of Lazarus;

but as God, He called him from the dead.

As a man, He talked with the blind and lame;

but as God, He opened their eyes and made their feet to walk.

As a man, men scorned Him;

but as God, the devils obeyed Him.

As a man, He suffered and died;

but as God, He arose from the dead.

As a man, they laid Him in a tomb;

but as God, He came forth conquering.

As a man, He was mocked as He hung on the cross;

but as God, the whole universe trembled when He cried, "It is finished."

As a man, men rejected Him;

but as God, He opened the way to the Holiest of holies,

when the veil of the Temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom.

As a man, He sat at meat with His disciples;

but as God, He vanished out of their sight.

He appeared to be a man to men;

but He proved to be the God of the Scriptures, fulfilling His word.

As the Son of man, He was visible;

but He was the image of the invisible God.
As a Son, He was known to the world;

but through the Spirit,

He was revealed to His chosen as Lord of all.

As the Son of man, He came into the world;

but as God He ascended to heaven, to come to earth again,

as King of kings and Lord of lords.

..."

Now let's examine each point scripturally ... I will number each axiom, and give my alternative (and prayerfully more correct) response in blue.

As a man, He was born in humility;
but as God, He was worshipped by men and angels.

Scripturally humans can indeed be worshiped in a manner which does not infringe the worship of Almighty GOD.
This kind of worship is generally called
"civil worship".
The Hebrew word for worship, shachah, is used in reference to humans more than it is used in reference to Almighty GOD.
When used in regards to humans i.e. prophets, dignitaries and kings,
shachah is generally translated
(esp. in the KJV) as
"do reverence, do obeisance, make obeisance, bow down."
Here is an example where it is translated as "worship":

(1 Chr 29:20) And David said to all the congregation,
Now bless YAHWEH your God. And all the congregation
blessed YAHWEH God of their fathers,
and bowed down their heads,
and worshipped YAHWEH, and the king.

Worshiped the king!?! How can that be! The king is not Almighty GOD!!

Hopefully you realize that this verse is indeed showing the two types of scripturally legitimate worship!
YAHWEH is being worshiped AS GOD;
whilst His representative, "the king" is being civilly worshiped as the king of Israel.

How much more our Lord Jesus the Messiah,
the Son of GOD, the King of Israel?
[John 1.49]

The Greek equivalent to shachah is the word proskuneo.
It has the same range of meaning. The confusion comes about because the translators always translated proskuneo as "worship" when used in regards to Jesus.
Therefore, the reader assumes
"if Jesus is being worshiped,
he must be Almighty GOD!"
Right Assumption? Wrong!!

In the NT people bowed before Jesus (even some who at the time didn't know who he really was)
because he was a man of God, a prophet; and of course,
(after it was revealed to some,)
their King, the Messiah.

To bow (shachah, proskuneo) before
a man of GOD, a prophet, a king; was the custom of the day, and in no way infringed the awesome, exclusive worship of Almighty GOD!

And when GOD sends back Jesus the Messiah to inaugurate the Kingdom of GOD upon the earth,
the very angels are commanded to bow before the man Christ Jesus, whom Almighty GOD has made "Lord of all"
[Heb 1.6, Acts 2.36, Phil 2.11]

So, as a man, not only was Jesus born,
he was (and is) worshiped as
Prophet, Messiah and Lord.

For more information on the scriptural worship of Jesus the Messiah;
please see 'The worship of Christ' and
' Defining the Term "Worship" '
As a man, He was tempted in all points as we are;
but as God, He defeated every power of the devil.

Let's begin by stating the obvious:

(James 1:13) ... for God cannot be tempted with evil, ...
and yet:

(Mat 4:1) Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness
to be tempted of the devil.
(Mark 1:11-13) And there came a voice from heaven, saying,
Thou art my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
12 And immediately the Spirit driveth him into the wilderness. 13 And he was there in the wilderness forty days,
tempted of Satan; ...

GOD ALMIGHTY CANNOT BE TEMPTED WITH EVIL!
Much less be tempted by the evil one, himself, Satan!

The temptations would have been both pointless & futile if Jesus was indeed GOD Himself, who is impervious to temptation and evil.

Satan the devil was not tempting GOD! Rather he was tempting the man
Jesus of Nazareth.
Just as the devil had tempted the First Adam, he was now similarly tempting the Last Adam. The great difference is of course:
where Adam failed, Jesus succeeded. Jesus did not yield to any of the devil's temptations.
He overcame them by the word of GOD and by being totally submitted to his GOD.

Incidentally (and sadly unlike many today)
the devil knew who Jesus was!
Not once did Satan call him GOD!
Rather ... If thou be the Son of God ...
So, as a man, Jesus both was tempted by the devil and overcame his temptations.
May we by the grace of GOD follow Christ's example.
As a man, He sat down on a mountain and spake unto the people;
but as God, He brought peace and comfort to every troubled life.

Jesus brought peace and comfort because he did not speak of himself!!

(Deu 18:18) I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee,
and will put my words in his mouth;
and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
(John 12:48-50) He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me,
he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. 50 And I know that his commandment is life everlasting:
whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.
(John 14:10) Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me?
the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
(John 8:28) Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he,
and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me,
I speak these things.
(John 7:16) Jesus answered them, and said,
My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.
So, as a man, Jesus spake to the people, and his words (and actions) brought peace and comfort;
because he spoke not of himself, neither taught his own doctrine;
but rather spoke and taught the words and doctrine
which the ONE GOD his Father gave him to speak.

It has been rightly said:
Never man spake like this man.
[John 7.46]
Why? Because there could only be one man who could fulfill that criteria.
See Deut. 18.15,18-19, Acts 3.22-26!!
As a man, He taught the people;
but as God, He forgave their sins.

Jesus, our Lord, Master, and Rabbi/Teacher,
forgave sins by the authority that GOD had given him!
Remember, Jesus can do nothing of himself!
[John 5.19,30; 8.28]

The believers who witnessed the healing of the paralyzed man not only understood this,
but actually glorified GOD for giving such authority to mankind!

(Mat 9:5-8) For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk?
6 But that ye may know that the Son of man
hath power [authority, Gk. exousia] on earth to forgive sins,
(then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house. 7 And he arose, and departed to his house. 8 But when the multitude saw it, they marvelled,
and glorified God,
which had given such power [authority] unto men.

Oh that we all would have this understanding of these people, who glorified GOD for giving such authority
to the man Jesus of Nazareth!

So, as a man, Jesus both taught the people,
and forgave sins by GOD-given authority.

For more information on Jesus forgiving sins;
please see 'Jesus forgave sins'
As a man He grew weary;
but as God, He claimed to have all power in heaven and in earth.
(That must be the Almighty, the only Omnipotent.)

Let's read that verse for what it says:

(Mat 28:18) And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying,
All power [authority, exousia] is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

Well for starters, GOD Almighty the only Omnipotent does not need to be given anything - much less authority!
Why? Because He is Almighty GOD!
Therefore, for someone needed to be given authority,
that someone is not Almighty GOD!

However GOD Almighty can chose to authorize anyone He so chooses.
GOD has indeed so chosen to authorize His totally submitted and obedient, holy servant Jesus the Messiah
[Matt 12.18, Acts 3.13, 4.27,30]
with all authority.
Amen! Let your will be done, O GOD!

So, as a man, Jesus indeed grew weary;
and now as a glorified, immortalized man,
Almighty GOD has fully authorized Jesus to totally represent Him.
As a man, He walked the paths of men;
but as God, He walked upon the waves of the sea.

Well that kind of reasoning would therefore make Peter, GOD!!

(Mat 14:28-29) And Peter answered him and said, Lord, if it be thou, bid me come unto thee on the water. 29 And he said, Come. And when Peter was come down out of the ship,
he walked on the water, to go to Jesus.

So, just like Peter,
as a man, Jesus walked on water by the power of GOD.
Remember, (John 14:10) ... the Father that dwelleth in me,
he doeth the works.

In fact, here is Peter's testimony of Jesus:

(Acts 2:22) Ye men of Israel, hear these words;
Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God
among you by miracles and wonders and signs,
which God did by [through] him in the midst of you,
as ye yourselves also know:
As a man, He slept on a pillow in the hinder part of a ship;
but as God, He rebuked the wind and the sea, and they obeyed Him.

Again, let's look at Peter's testimony i.e. Acts 2.22 &
(Acts 10:38) How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth
with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil;
for God was with him.

Jesus did such miraculous things because GOD was with him!
Jesus was GOD's anointed one,
the Christ of GOD.
[Luke 9.20]

Truly, What manner of man is this?
Answer: He is the Messiah, GOD's authorized agent!

So, as a man, Jesus slept; and as GOD's authorized agent,
the wind & sea obeyed this man, just like they obeyed Moses in times past!
[e.g. Exo 10.13, 14.16,21,26-27; Isa 63.12]
Truly, Jesus the Messiah is that Prophet like unto Moses!
As a man, He hungered;
but as God, bread grew and multiplied in His hands.

(Mat 15:36) And he took the seven loaves and the fishes,
and gave thanks, and brake them, and gave to his disciples, and the disciples to the multitude.
(Mark 8:6) And he commanded the people to sit down on the ground: and he took the seven loaves,
and gave thanks, and brake, and gave to his disciples to set before them; and they did set them before the people.
(John 6:11) And Jesus took the loaves;
and when he had given thanks, he distributed to the disciples, and the disciples to them that were set down; and likewise of the fishes as much as they would.

Now who do you think Jesus gave thanks to?
That's right!
To the GOD of Abraham, Isaac & Jacob!
To the GOD of Elijah who caused the barrel of meal & cruse of oil to multiply!
[1 Kings 17.8-16]
To the GOD of Elisha who caused the oil to multiply!
[2 Kings 4.1-7]

Amen! The same GOD who is the GOD and Father of Jesus [John 20.17] caused the loaves and the fishes to multiply!

And what was the men's response?
Did they cry out, "Jesus is our GOD?"
Answer:

(John 6:14-15) Then those men, when they had seen the miracle that Jesus did, said,
This is of a truth that prophet that should come into the world.
[i.e. Deut 18.15,18-19]
15 When Jesus therefore perceived that they would come and take him by force,
to make him a king, he departed again into a mountain himself alone.

The men perceived that he was
"That Prophet, That Prophet promised by GOD Almighty, according to the Scriptures."
So much so that they wanted to make him "king!"
However, their timing was wrong. It was not the will of GOD.

No doubt, when GOD will finally send back to earth, the Lord Messiah,
Jesus will indeed be enthroned, and rule over Israel in the Kingdom of GOD; in fulfillment of all GOD's promises.
[Luke 1.32-33, Matt 25.31, Acts 3.20-21]

So, as a man, Jesus hungered;
and Almighty GOD heard his prayer and multiplied the food.
As a man, He wept at the tomb of Lazarus;
but as God, He called him from the dead.

What did Jesus actually say?

(John 11:41-42) Then they took away the stone from the place where the dead was laid.
And Jesus lifted up his eyes, and said,
Father, I thank thee that thou hast heard me.
42 And I knew that thou hearest me always:
but because of the people which stand by I said it,
that they may believe that thou hast sent me.

Jesus lifted up his eyes and said "Father I thank thee that thou hast heard me."
Is this not both prayer and thanks to GOD for a prayer which is about to be answered?

Jesus is thanking GOD for hearing him. When did GOD hear Jesus (in this context)? No doubt in the many occasions that Jesus spent in prayer to GOD, sometimes even all night in prayer! [Luke 6.12]

So Jesus had already prayed to GOD concerning the resurrection of Lazarus. But like Jesus said, he prayed yet again, so that the people would believe that GOD had indeed sent him,
that GOD had indeed sent
the man, Jesus of Nazareth!

Also, Jesus can do nothing of himself,
it is his Father that doeth the works!
[John 5.19, 14.10]

So, as a man, Jesus wept, prayed, and called Lazarus from the dead.
Lazarus, however, was raised from the dead by the power of GOD Almighty.
As a man, He talked with the blind and lame;
but as God, He opened their eyes and made their feet to walk.

Again, look at the testimony of a disciple who witnessed Jesus,
namely Peter.
Acts 2.22, 10.38.

(Acts 2:22) Ye men of Israel, hear these words;
Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God
among you by miracles and wonders and signs,
which God did by [through] him in the midst of you,
as ye yourselves also know:

GOD Almighty did the miracles, wonders & signs
through that approved man,
Jesus of Nazareth.

So, as a man, Jesus opened their eyes and made their feet to walk,
not by any power or ability of himself;
but rather, because Almighty GOD was with him.
As a man, men scorned Him;
but as God, the devils obeyed Him.

Sadly demons (devils) unlike many today,
know who Jesus is!

James says that demons believe in one GOD and tremble!
[James 2.19]
So who did the demons believe Jesus was?
And why did they obey him?

(Mat 8:28-29) And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way. 29 And, behold, they cried out, saying, What have we to do with thee,
Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?

(Mark 1:23-24) And there was in their synagogue a man with an unclean spirit; and he cried out,
24 Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee,
thou Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us?
I know thee who thou art,
the Holy One of God.

(Mark 3:11) And unclean spirits, when they saw him,
fell down before him, and cried, saying,
Thou art the Son of God.

(Mark 5:2) And when he was come out of the ship, immediately there met him out of the tombs a man with an unclean spirit,
(Mark 5:7) And cried with a loud voice, and said, What have I to do with thee,
Jesus, thou Son of the most high God?
I adjure thee by God, that thou torment me not.

(Luke 4:33-34) And in the synagogue there was a man, which had a spirit of an unclean devil, and cried out with a loud voice, 34 Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee,
thou Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us?
I know thee who thou art;
the Holy One of God.

(Luke 4:41) And devils also came out of many, crying out, and saying,
Thou art Christ the Son of God. And he rebuking them suffered them not to speak:
for they knew that he was Christ.

(Luke 8:28) When he saw Jesus, he cried out, and fell down before him, and with a loud voice said, What have I to do with thee,
Jesus, thou Son of God most high? I beseech thee, torment me not.

(Mat 12:28) But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, ...
(Luke 11:20) But if I with the finger of God cast out devils, ...

The demons who believe in one GOD and tremble, knew who Jesus was!
They knew he was:
the Messiah, the Son of the Most High GOD,
the Holy One of GOD.

That is why they obeyed him! Jesus spoke with GOD-given authority and cast out demons by the spirit of the Most High GOD!

So, as a man, demons obeyed Jesus because he is the Messiah,
the Son of the Most High GOD.
As a man, He suffered and died;
but as God, He arose from the dead.

There are at least 20 clear NT verses which categorically state that GOD Almighty the Father, the ONE GOD,
raised His Son, Jesus from the dead
e.g.
Acts 2.24,32; 3.15, 4.10, 10.40,
Acts 13.30,37; 17.31,
Rom 4.24, 6.4, 8.11, 10.9,
1 Cor 6.14, 15.15,
Gal 1.1, Eph 1.20, Col 2.12,
1 Thess 1.10, Heb 13.20,
1 Pet 1.21, etc.

Not one verse says anything about:
Jesus rising from dead as GOD
or Jesus rising from the dead
because he was GOD.
Which is senseless anyway. Why?

BECAUSE GOD ALMIGHTY CANNOT DIE!
THAT IS WHAT "IMMORTAL" MEANS!
INCAPABLE OF DYING!

(1 Tim 6:16) Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.

GOD Almighty alone has innate immortality. Immortality is His to give.
Whilst Jesus is:
the firstborn from the dead,
the firstfruits of them that slept.
[Col 1.18, 1 Cor 15.20]
Jesus is therefore the first human to whom
the eternal, immortal, invisible,
the only wise God,
[1 Tim 1.17]
has raised from the dead & given immortality to.

So, as a man, Jesus suffered & died, and was raised from the dead by GOD his Father;
and now liveth by the power of GOD!
[2 Cor 13.4]
As a man, they laid Him in a tomb;
but as God, He came forth conquering.

See No. 12.
So, as a man, Jesus died and was buried, and the ONE GOD raised him from the dead. Therefore Jesus can now testify:

(Rev 1:18) I am he that liveth,
and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.
As a man, He was mocked as He hung on the cross;
but as God, the whole universe trembled when He cried,
"It is finished."

Rather, the centurion got it right!

(Mat 27:54) Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying,
Truly this was the Son of God.
(Luke 23:46-47) And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said,
Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.
47 Now when the centurion saw what was done,
he glorified God, saying,
Certainly this was a righteous man.

So, as a man, Jesus hung on the cross, and three days later ...
(Rom 1:4) And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

Note: Son of GOD not GOD!!
As a man, men rejected Him;
but as God,
He opened the way to the Holiest of holies, when the veil of the Temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom.

????

Let's simply let the Scriptures speak:

(Heb 10:19-21) Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus, 20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh; 21 And having an high priest over the house of God;

(Heb 5:1) For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins:
(Heb 5:5) So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him,
Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee.
(Heb 5:10) Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec.

(Heb 2:17) Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

(Heb 4:14) Seeing then that we have a great high priest,
that is passed into the heavens,
Jesus the Son of God,
let us hold fast our profession.

So, as a man, Jesus was indeed rejected;
but now seeing that he is the faithful, obedient Son of GOD,
has been called of GOD, to be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to GOD.
High priests are taken from among men.
The man Christ Jesus is now for ever a high priest of the order of Melchisedec.
[Heb 5.6, 6.20, 7.17,21]
It should go without saying
that the High Priest cannot possibly be the GOD to whom he ministers too!!
As a man, He sat at meat with His disciples;
but as God, He vanished out of their sight.
He appeared to be a man to men;
but He proved to be the God of the Scriptures, fulfilling His word.

Again, what was the message of Peter,
who heard firsthand the testimony of these disciples [Luke 24.33]?

(Acts 2:22) Ye men of Israel, hear these words;
Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God ...

Throughout the Book of Acts, there is simply no account, no testimony, no sermon, no preaching,
of the 'apparent fact'
that Jesus is actually,
their "GOD" who appeared to them, and fulfilled Scripture!

What about Paul? He had an encounter with the risen Jesus.
What was his testimony?

(Acts 9:20-22) And straightway he preached Christ in the synagogues,
that he is the Son of God. 21 But all that heard him were amazed, and said; Is not this he that destroyed them which called on this name in Jerusalem, and came hither for that intent, that he might bring them bound unto the chief priests? 22 But Saul increased the more in strength, and confounded the Jews which dwelt at Damascus,
proving that this is very Christ.

Paul (Saul) said nothing about the Lord Jesus being Almighty GOD,
but rather that he is the Son of GOD, the very Messiah! And that's three days after his encounter with the Lord Jesus!
What! Was Paul again mistaken?
What! Did Paul have a last error that was worse than the first
(i.e. after firstly persecuting Jesus and his church)??
Judge for yourselves!

Paul later goes on to say to the Athenians:
(Acts 17:29-31) Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device. 30 And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:
31 Because he [GOD] hath appointed a day,
in the which he [GOD] will judge the world in righteousness
by that man whom he [GOD] hath ordained;
whereof he [GOD] hath given assurance unto all men,
in that he [GOD] hath raised him
[the man Jesus] from the dead.

Paul goes on to say ...

(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God,
and one mediator between God and men,
the man Christ Jesus;

So, as a resurrected, immortalized man,
Jesus showed that he was not a spirit,
but a man of flesh and bones
[Luke 24.39];
and yet in his resurrected body, he could vanish out of sight.

The man Messiah Jesus is indeed that promised man, prophet and Messiah;
who the ONE GOD ordained to fulfill His words and Scriptures;
through whom the ONE GOD will judge the world.
Jesus is that man who is the one mediator
between the ONE GOD and mankind.
As the Son of man, He was visible;
but He was the image of the invisible God.
As a Son, He was known to the world;
but through the Spirit,
He was revealed to His chosen as Lord of all.

Amen!
Jesus without doubt is the Son of man!
And we know who is not the Son of man i.e.
(Num 23:19) God is not a man, that he should lie;
neither the son of man, that he should repent:...

Jesus is indeed the [visible] image of the invisible GOD
[Col 1.18]
And an image is not the very same thing that it represents.

And why is Jesus, Lord of all?
[Acts 10.36]

(Acts 2:36) Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly,
that God hath made that same Jesus,
whom ye have crucified,
both Lord and Christ.

Answer: because GOD Almighty made him so!

Therefore, one day ...
(Phil 2:11) And that every tongue should confess
that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.
As the Son of man, He came into the world;
but as God He ascended to heaven,
to come to earth again,
as King of kings and Lord of lords.

Jesus is still "the Son of man!"
Even after he ascended into heaven!

As testified by Stephen before his death:
(Acts 7:55-56) But he, being full of the Holy Ghost,
looked up stedfastly into heaven,
and saw the glory of God,
and Jesus standing on the right hand of God,
56 And said,
Behold, I see the heavens opened,
and the Son of man standing on the right hand of God.

Who then had ascended into heaven?
(Heb 4:14) Seeing then that we have a great high priest,
that is passed into the heavens,
Jesus the Son of God,
let us hold fast our profession.

Let's clarify.
Who then is returning to earth?

(1 Th 1:9-10) For they themselves show of us what manner of entering in we had unto you,
and how ye turned to God from idols
to serve the living and true God;
10 And to wait for his Son from heaven,
whom he raised from the dead,
even Jesus, which delivered us from the wrath to come.

It is the man Christ Jesus,
[1 Tim 2.5]
the Son of man, the Son of God,
who passed into the heavens,
who is currently at the right hand of the ONE GOD!
Even Jesus, the Son of the living and true GOD
who we await from heaven!!

Can Scripture be clearer?
Indeed, Jesus will return as
King of Kings and Lord of Lords,
has ordained by GOD Almighty.

Nevertheless,
the ONE GOD his Father,
will always be his GOD;
[John 20.17, Rev 3.12]
And Jesus will always be:
the Son of man,
the Son of the ONE, Living and True GOD!

Saturday, March 14, 2009

Both, Oneness & Trinity doctrines are equally wrong. They use the same proof texts and practically the same methods of interpretation to present their common erroneous pretext:
That is, that our Lord and Savior,
Jesus the Messiah, the Son of GOD
is indeed GOD ALMIGHTY!!

In this sense then, both doctrines do equally err.

The largest Oneness organization, UPCI, have a tract that presents 60 questions concerning the Godhead, titled "60 Questions on the Godhead with Bible answers."

In this tract the oneness camp present to the trinitarian camp, 60 questions, with 60 “oneness” answers.

In this blog, I present the majority of the 60 questions with alternative answers.
And by GOD’s grace, I believe the alternative answers presented actually align with GOD’s Holy Scripture and the Truths concerning the ONE GOD and His glorious, highly exalted Son, the Lord Jesus the Messiah.

The Oneness questions are presented in brown.
The Oneness answers in green.
The alternative (and prayerfully more correct) answers and responses are in blue.

60 questions on the Godhead

1. Is the word trinity in the Bible? No.

And BTW, neither is the word ‘oneness’.

2. Does the Bible say that there are three persons in the Godhead? No.

In fact, the Bible does not speak of any persons or anyone “in the Godhead.”

5. Does the Bible use the word three in reference to God? Only one verse in the entire Bible does so - I John 5:7. It speaks of the Father, the Word (instead of Son), and the Holy Ghost, and it concludes by saying, "These three are one."

It appears that there is a great translational issue concerning 1 John 5.7.

The truth of the matter is that the Bible in fact does NOT in any sense use the word ‘three’ in reference to GOD Almighty!

6. Does the Bible use the word one in reference to God? Yes, many times. For example, see Zechariah 14:9; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 23:9; Mark 12:29, 32; John 8:41; ~~10:30;~~ Romans 3:30; I Corinthians 8:4; Galatians 3:20; I Timothy 2:5; James 2:19.

Amen!
(John 10.30 is not appropriate in this regard.)

8. Has the Christian only one Heavenly Father? Yes. Matthew 23:9.

Amen. And consider also what Jesus said concerning the Father:

(John 20:17) ... I ascend unto my Father, and your Father;
and to my God, and your God.

It appears that Christians' Heavenly Father and GOD;
is also both the Father and GOD of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Compare: Rom 15.6, 2 Cor 11.31, Eph 1.3,17;
Col 1.3, 1 Pet 1.3.

9. Then why did Jesus say to Philip, "He that hath seen me hath seen the Father"
(John 14:9)? Because Jesus is the express image of God's person. Hebrews 1:3. The Greek word for person in this verse literally means "substance."

Yes, Jesus is the image of the invisible GOD.

[Colossians 1.15]

However, an image is not the thing that it represents.Thus, Jesus is the image of GOD; he totally represents GOD his Father. Jesus also represents the very substance of GOD, nonetheless, Jesus is GOD’s perfect representative. He is not GOD himself!

Note in John 14.10, Jesus says I am in the Father;
not I am the Father!
Which would have been the case, if Oneness doctrine were true.

13. Who is the Father? The Father is the one God, particularly as revealed in parental relationship to humanity. Deuteronomy 32:6; Malachi 2:10.

15. Did the prophet Isaiah say that Jesus would be the Father? Yes. Isaiah 9:6; 63:16.

No!
The word 'Father' in Isa 9:6 abi-ad is being used in a different context here; the term 'father' in this verse does not mean the ONE GOD.

Compare Isa 51:2, Matt 3.9, Rom 4.16.

Also Eliakim: he shall be a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and to the house of Judah. Isa 22.20-22.
In Isa 9.6, abi-ad means that the Messianic king will be:
the father of the age to come.

Another example is Joseph:
(Gen 45:8) So now it was not you that sent me hither, but God: and he hath made me a father to Pharaoh, and lord of all his house, and a ruler throughout all the land of Egypt.

So, just as Abraham being called 'father' doesn't make him Almighty GOD; and just as Eliakim, being called 'father' doesn't make him Almighty GOD; and just as Joseph being made 'father' to Pharaoh, doesn't make him Almighty GOD;
the same goes for the Messiah!!

Besides, Jesus clearly said:
(Mat 23:9-10) And call no man your father upon the earth:
for one is your Father, which is in heaven.
10 Neither be ye called masters:
for one is your Master, even Christ.

Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and the ONE GOD, the Heavenly Father.
And above all, Jesus identified his Father as the only true GOD!
(John 17:1) These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, ...
(John 17:3) And this is life eternal,
that they might know thee the only true God,
and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

( See also Concerning Isaiah 9:6 )

19. Does the Bible say that Jesus is the Almighty? Yes. Revelation 1:8

NO! It does not!
Don't be duped by red-letter bibles.
Verse 8 is about the ONE GOD, the Father. Just compare verse 4:
from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; ...
Then verse 5: And from Jesus Christ, ... right through to verse 7 (ending with Amen.);
these verses are about Jesus.

So, Verse 4: is about GOD;

Verses 5-7: is about Jesus Christ;

Verse 8: is about GOD again;

Verse 9: is about John.

22. How many persons did John see sitting on the throne in heaven? One. Revelation 4:2.

The ONE he saw is the ONE GOD,
the LORD GOD ALMIGHTY.

Whilst the Lamb is in the midst of the throne alongside the 24 elders & the 4 beasts
[Rev 5.6, 7.17].
The Lamb (we know who the Lamb is! John 1.29,36)
even takes the book out of the right hand of Him who is seated on the throne!! [Rev 5.6-7]

Solely the ONE GOD is depicted throughout the Book of Revelation as seated on the One throne; whilst the Lamb is not!

23. If Jesus is the first and the last, why did God say in Isaiah 44:6 that He was the first and the last? Because Jesus is the God of the Old Testament incarnate.

Different context.
Clue: The immortal Almighty GOD who ONLY has immortality [1 Tim 6.16] cannot die!
While Jesus the first and the last, was dead!!
[Rev 1:17-18]
Thus it ought to be obvious that the terms "the first and the last" are being used in different contexts, depending on whom it is referring to, whether GOD or Christ.

30. Does the Bible say that there is but one Lord? Yes. Isaiah 45:18; Ephesians 4:5.

31. Does the Bible say that Christ is the Lord? Yes. Luke 2:11.

32. Does the Bible say that the Lord is God? Yes. I Kings 18:39; Zechariah 14:5; Acts 2:39; Revelation 19:1.

The word 'Lord' is being used in two different contexts.

See Psalm 110.1. The word 'lord' is used twice.
Once in reference to YAHWEH GOD ALMIGHTY.
The other reference to someone who David
prophesied about and called 'my lord'.

Jesus after identifying the ONE GOD as the ONE LORD of Deut 6.4 in Mark 12:28-34;
then identifies himself as that other 'lord' referred to in Psalm 110.1.
See Mark 12:35-37.

Psa. 110.1 is the most quoted OT verse in the NT.
It defines the Lordship of Christ.
And this verse was totally fulfilled when the LORD GOD made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
[Acts 2.32-36]

For more info on Psalm 110.1
and its implications concerning Jesus' Lordship,
please see:

LORD, Lord, lord

Adonai and Adoni (Psalm 110:1)

BTW, the word "LORD" used in the verses referred to in questions:
30 (Isaiah 45:18), 32 (I Kings 18:39; Zechariah 14:5;), 39, 40;
is actually GOD's Name in the Hebrew text
(hence not the actual Hebrew word for 'lord').

That is why this word appears in capitals, "LORD" in our English OT.

And also, that is why these OT comparisons to the Lord Jesus simply do not match.
You cannot just compare two OT & NT verses which both use the word 'lord' and think that they are referring to the same being, the same 'lord'.

The OT usage of the word "LORD"
(in the example questions e.g. 30,32,39,40,etc.)
is actually GOD's name.
(Hence capitalized in our translations as "LORD" to indicate to the reader that this word is actually GOD's name in the Hebrew.)

Whilst the other usage is Jesus' title, simply the word 'Lord'.
(Also, other men in both the OT/NT are also called 'Lord'.
That doesn't make them the LORD GOD just as it doesn't make them
the Lord Christ! [Luke 2.11, Col 3.24])

Always check the context:
see LORD, Lord, lord

So in answer to No. 30.
The Father is YAHWEH, there is none else.
Hence he is the One God and Father of all. [Eph 4.6]

And in answer to No. 31.
In contrast, Jesus of Nazareth is the one man whom YAHWEH GOD
made both "Lord & Christ" in fulfillment of Psalm 110.1;
thus Jesus Christ is the "one Lord" [Eph 4.5]

Thus:
(1 Cor 8:4) ... that there is none other God but one.
(1 Cor 8:6) But to us there is but one God, the Father, ...
and one Lord, Jesus Christ, ...

33. How could the church belong to Jesus (Matthew 16:18) and yet be the church of God (I Corinthians 10:32)? Because Jesus is God in the flesh.

A simpler answer would be:
(John 3:35) The Father loveth the Son,
and hath given all things into his hand.

(John 6:37) All that the Father giveth me
shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.

(John 16:15) All things that the Father hath are mine: ...

(John 17:2) As thou hast given him power over all flesh,
that he should give eternal life
to as many as thou hast given him.

(John 17:9-11) I pray for them: I pray not for the world,
but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine.
10 And all mine are thine, and thine are mine;
and I am glorified in them.
11 ... Holy Father, keep through thine own name
those whom thou hast given me,
that they may be one, as we are.

37. What is one thing that God Cannot do? Lie. Titus 1:2.

GOD ALSO CANNOT DIE.

That is what "Immortal" means! So that's two things!

(1 Tim 1:17) Now unto the King eternal,
immortal, invisible, the only wise God,
be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen.

(1 Tim 6:16) Who only hath immortality,
dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto;
whom no man hath seen, nor can see:
to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.

Yet Jesus died for us. Hence, Jesus is not the ONE GOD, but rather:
the human Son of the ONE GOD, the Father.

(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God,
and one mediator between God and men,
the man Christ Jesus;

(2 John 1:3) Grace be with you, mercy, and peace,
from God the Father,
and from the Lord Jesus Christ,
the Son of the Father, in truth and love.

41. Does the Bible say that God alone treads upon the waves of the sea? Yes. Job 9:8

42. Why, then, was Jesus able to walk upon the Sea of Galilee (Matthew 14:25)? Because He is God the Creator. Colossians 1:16.

Such reasoning would make Peter, GOD the Creator!!
Why? Because Peter walked on water:
(Mat 14:29) And he said, Come.
And when Peter was come down out of the ship,
he walked on the water, to go to Jesus.

So ask yourself how was Peter able to walk on water?
Hint: The answer to that question will answer how Jesus was able to walk on water too!
Clue: Acts 2.22, 10.38.

43. Is God the only one who can forgive sin? Yes. Isaiah 43:25; Mark 2:7.

44. Why, then, could Jesus forgive sin in Mark 2:5-11? Because He is God the Savior.

Again, such reasoning would make Jesus' disciples,
God the Savior!
Why? Because they also forgave sins.
(John 20:23) Whose soever sins
ye remit [forgive, same Gk. word as in Mark 2.5-11!],
they are remitted [forgiven, same Gk. word as in
Mark 2.5-11!] unto them; ...

So the question should be, how could the disciples do so?
Answer: By the authority of Jesus which was given them.
Then how did Jesus in turn forgive sins?
That right! By the authority of the ONE GOD has given to Jesus!!
Therefore:
(Mat 9:8) But when the multitude saw it, they marvelled,
and glorified God, which had given such power [AUTHORITY] unto men;
i.e. the man Jesus of Nazareth!!

The believing crowd understood this!!

Monday, February 02, 2009

A Mistake Which Outdoes All Mistakes! By Anthony Buzzard

A Mistake Which Outdoes All Mistakes!

There is a piece of simple misinformation copied without examination by Bible commentator after commentator. It occurs in commentaries on Psalm 110:1, a verse which wins the prize for being the most often cited passage from the Old Testament in the New. Psalm 110:1 is likely (I hope soon) to have its day of fame. It is going to expose a colossal, long-held misunderstanding about the relationship of the one God to His unique Son Jesus.

Psalm 110:1 is an inspired oracle about the Messiah, who since the ascension is sitting at the chief position next to God in the universe. Jesus loved this verse and so did the New Testament writers. They allude to it some 23 times. It is of massive significance in describing who Jesus is. Because its testimony is in direct contradiction to the traditional belief that Jesus is “God the Son,” it has suffered miserably at the hands of commentators, who by some extraordinary means actually misinform the public about the crucial Hebrew word for the second “lord” of Psalm 110:1.

Reformer Martin Luther was right to point out that Psalm 110 is “the chief psalm of our dear Lord Jesus Christ, in which his person, his resurrection, ascension and whole Kingdom are clearly and powerfully set forth.” The Psalm begins by announcing a solemn divine oracle. Jesus quoted this Psalm as vital spiritual information. He referred to David as here “speaking in the spirit” (Mat:22:43; Mark 12:36):
“The Lord said to my lord, ‘Sit at My right hand until I put your enemies under your feet.’”

Of such fundamental importance was this proposition that it provided a New Testament proof text for defining the Divine Plan and Jesus’ relationship to his Father. It appears in the New Testament over and over again. What does this oracle reveal to us?

This verse has been an embarrassment to “received” traditional views of Jesus as “God the Son.” Psalm 110:1 in fact completely eliminates any such idea. Peter provides one of the many examples of the quotation of our verse. In his epoch-making sermon in Acts 2 Peter explained that the Hebrew Bible had predicted the elevation of Jesus to the supreme position in the universe next to God his Father. This happened at the ascension, and the words of Peter inform us of the status achieved by Jesus at the ascension.
“For it was not David who ascended to heaven, but David himself said,
‘The LORD said to my lord, “Sit at My right hand until I make your enemies your footstool.”’
Therefore let the whole house of Israel know for certain that God has made him both Lord and Messiah, this Jesus whom you crucified”
(Acts 2:34-36).
The reaction of Peter’s audience was suitably dramatic. They took the Apostle’s words with utmost seriousness: “Now when they heard this, they were cut to the heart, and they asked Peter and the other apostles, ‘What are we to do, brothers?’” (2:37).

It would be desirable for contemporary audiences to be as touched, if not outraged, by the constant misuse of this verse by tradition-bound commentary. Walk into a Christian bookstore and treat yourself to a perusal of one of the many commentaries available, both new and old. Here is one example among many I found recently:
“Ps. 110:1, ‘The Lord said to my Lord’ describes a conversation between God the Father and God the Son.”

This is a complete falsehood, as we shall show!

The Jews as custodians of the Hebrew Bible are rightly insulted by the suggestion that there are two who are God, the one talking to the other! There is only one who is God. God never speaks to God. That would not be monotheism.
And monotheism, belief that God is one and not more, is the absolute criterion of truth for us all.

The proof of the rudimentary fact that God is not speaking to God is found in the language of Psalm 110:1. But first another example of misinformation, this time from the 1000-page Commentary on Matthew by William Hendrikson:
“In this Psalm David is making a distinction between YHVH (Jehovah) and Adonai - YHVH, then, is addressing David’s Adonai; or, if one prefers, God is speaking to the Mediator. He is promising the Mediator such pre-eminence, power, authority and majesty as would be proper only for One who, as to his person, from all eternity, was, is now, and forever will be God” (p.812, emphasis added).

This statement contains a major error of fact. The text does not say that YHVH is addressing David’s ADONAI! The word in the Hebrew text is not Adonai at all. Adonai is indeed the word (all 449 times) for the Lord GOD, that is, the supreme God of Israel. But the inspired word in this Psalm, found in all the originals, is not Adonai; it is adoni. There is a vast difference between these two words. Adonai is indeed GOD, the Lord. Adoni, by contrast, never refers (in all 195 occurrences) to the Lord GOD. It refers always to a human, that is, non-Deity superior (or occasionally to an angel). Adoni is never a title of Deity. It tells us always that the “lord” in question is someone who is not God,
but a human superior.

Here then in this marvelous Psalm we have a brilliant definition of the status of the Son of God, Jesus the Messiah. He is not Adonai (Lord GOD) but “my lord,” [adoni] the Messiah. The word provided by the Scripture which Jesus described as inspired and which he used to silence all counter arguments (Mat:22:46) is the Hebrew word for “lord” [adoni] which never designates GOD! This verse was alluded to massively in the New Testament, and Peter used it to define and demonstrate the status of Jesus at the right hand of the Father: he is the uniquely elevated human lord (Acts 2:36), but not a second GOD! The text should put an end to the centuries of dispute about who Jesus the Messiah really is. He is not God (which would make two Gods) but the one and only Lord Messiah, the man Christ Jesus, as Paul said in 1 Timothy 2:5, reflecting the information provided by Psalm 110:1.

Jesus is referred to as the lord Messiah over 100 times in the New Testament. He is called Christ or the Christ (Messiah) 516 times. That should be enough to convince us about who he really is.
He is the “our lord” of the ancient prayer “maranatha” (1 Cor:6:22).

I would ask the reader to ponder the extraordinary fact, without parallel in the history of Bible commentary, that the actual word for the second “lord” in our verse has been constantly misreported by those expounding the Bible. The error is very, very common. It actually appeared in the margin of Acts 2:34 in editions of the NASU Bible, where the note reads: “The Hebrew word in Psalm 110:1 is Adonai.” But it is not. And the fact can be checked by anyone consulting the original. (Strong’s does not show this distinction.)

Standard authorities are in no doubt at all about the immense significance of the difference between the forms of the Hebrew word for “lord.” The Hebrew text makes a clear-cut and consistent distinction between the one supreme Lord GOD and human (occasionally angelic) “lords.” The Hebrew text wants us to know exactly who is the Lord GOD (Adonai) and who is a human superior (adoni, my lord).

Every student of the Bible should know that when the personal name of the One God appears in English translations, the word is printed in English (in many versions) as LORD (all capitals). This tells us that behind the LORD (nearly 7000 times) lies the Hebrew word YHVH or Yahweh (sometimes pronounced Jehovah, though this is almost certainly not accurate). Another significant editorial policy is to write Lord (capital “L” but lower-case “ord”) when the Hebrew word is Adonai (= the Lord GOD, the supreme Lord). But when in the Hebrew text we have the word adoni (pronounced in Hebrew “adonee”) then many English translations have the word “lord” (lower-case “l”). For example, Sarah (Gen:18:12) referred to Abraham her husband as “adoni,” my lord, not Adonai (the Lord GOD)!

That distinction between the Lord GOD and a human lord or superior is faithfully reflected by:
the English Lord (capital L), as distinct from lord (lower-case l).

However, when translators arrived at Psalm 110:1, they broke their own rules and wrote the second “lord” (adoni) as Lord (with capital). You will find this misleading inconsistency in the King James, NIV and many other versions. The Roman Catholic Bible most accurately kept a lower-case “l” on the second “lord” telling us that the word was “adoni” (= my human, not Deity lord) and not Adonai, the Lord GOD. The Revised Version of 1881 (the first correction of the KJV of 1611) wrote “lord” and thus emended the KJV mistake. The RSV and NRSV followed suit and correctly wrote “lord.” BBE (Basic Bible in English) and the Jewish Publication Society also rightly provided us with the truth about that second “lord” by writing it with lower case “l.”

The difference between God and man is the most significant of all distinctions, and it is carefully and precisely given us in Psalm 110:1, which the New Testament uses universally to define the status of Jesus in relation to God.
Jesus is the human being, the “man Messiah” (1 Tim. 2:5) at God’s right hand.
This fact, which Satan does not like and wants to suppress, tells us of the amazing position God has granted to a sinless, virginally begotten man, Son of God (Luke 1:35), installed at the right hand of God’s own throne in heaven. Jesus of course will leave that position and come back to the earth at his future coming to take up his position on the throne of David in Jerusalem (Luke 1:32, etc.).

There is only one who is God, the Creator of all things, in the Bible. He is the Father, indeed the “God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ” (Rom:15:6; 2 Cor:1:3; Eph:1:3; 1 Pet:1:3). Paul put it this way: “There is to us [Christians] one God, the Father” (1 Cor:8:6). Paul went on to add that we also recognize “one Lord Jesus Christ.”
But that Lord Jesus Christ is not the Lord GOD! He is the Lord Christ and was announced with this title when the angels told the shepherds, “Today in the city of David there has been born for you a savior who is the Lord Christ” (Luke 2:11, literally the “Messiah/Christ Lord”; cp. Col:3:24; Rom:16:18).

Luke adds a few verses later that Jesus can also rightly be called “the Lord’s Messiah” (2:26). He is the Christ who belongs to the LORD GOD. When the two blind men appealed to Jesus to have their sight restored, they touchingly addressed him as “Lord, son of David” (Mat:20:31) and even the pagan, Canaanite woman pleaded with Jesus to help her with her demonized daughter. She expressed her faith in the true Messiah as “Lord, son of David” (Mat:15:22).

Elizabeth, the mother of John the Baptist, was thrilled to greet Mary when she was pregnant with Jesus. She rejoiced that she was in the company of “the mother of my lord” (Luke 1:43). She meant of course not “the mother of God,” but the mother of my lord, the Messiah. This was the “my lord” of Psalm 110:1 (adoni). A ghastly twist was given to the Christian faith when later Bible readers began to speak of “the mother of God.” (I heard a Catholic priest say that God had asked Mary to be His mother!) This is standard language in the Roman Catholic system, but Protestants equally speak of Jesus as being God! For some illogical reason they balk at the idea that Mary is the “mother of God.” But why should they? Constantly one hears that “Jesus is God.” Mary ought really then to be called the “mother of God” in the Protestant system. Readers ought to ponder this interesting fact.

But most importantly they should ponder deeply the distressing and amazing fact that Bibles and Bible commentaries have in many cases not permitted you to know that Jesus in Psalm 110:1 is not Adonai, the Lord GOD, but adoni, my lord, the human Messiah.

All the centuries of strife and confused argumentation which eventually led to the “creeds” could have been avoided if the adoni (“my lord” of Ps. 110:1) had been recognized as the perfect definition of the Messiah not as LORD GOD, but as Lord Messiah.

Currently the battle over the identity of Jesus continues and Psalm 110:1 is not being recognized as the appropriate corrective to centuries of misunderstanding. It is not uncommon for the following kind of comment to appear on Paul’s classic monotheistic statement in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Paul tells us that “there is one God, the Father…and one Lord Jesus Christ/Messiah.”

Astonishingly the Oxford Bible Commentary has this to say:
“The Jewish Shema (‘Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord,’ Deut. 6:4 and affirmed by Jesus in Mark 12:29) is here split apart into a statement about God the Lord, the Creator of the world and the goal of salvation, and a matching statement about the Lord, now taken to be Jesus Christ, the medium of creation and redemption. ... The way in which Paul reads them both out of the Jewish declaration of monotheism is suggestive of the ways in which Christian theology will struggle to define Christ’s exalted status without falling into ditheism
[belief in two Gods]” (p. 1121).

The Shema is “split apart”?! The Shema of Deuteronomy 6:4 and of Jesus in Mark 12:29 has now been supplemented and expanded to include two who are God? This is precisely what Paul does not mean. He carefully distinguishes the ONE GOD, who is the Father, from the one Lord Jesus Messiah. The Messiah is not the ONE GOD, and the difference between them is exactly the difference declared 1000 years earlier by Psalm 110:1 in which as we have seen YHVH speaks to the Messiah in a prophetic oracle, and defines the Messiah not as the LORD GOD but as the human lord Messiah, adoni.

Tampering with the biblical creed (splitting it apart) which defines God as the Father of Jesus is unwise. If Psalm 110:1 had been fully recognized instead of being widely misrepresented in regard to the actual Hebrew words of the text, centuries of argumentation could have been avoided and today the great “monotheistic” religions would have common ground, rather than being hopelessly at odds over who and how many God is (Jews, Christians and Muslims).

There is a simple message here: Instead of the brain-breaking difficulties and infinitely complex vocabulary of Trinitarianism, Jesus offers us an easier burden. He affirmed the great unitarian creed of Israel (Mark 12:29) as did Paul (1 Cor:8:4-6). The astonishing new fact since the ascension is that there is a glorified, immortalized Son of God, a human being by origin (Mat:1:18, 20; Lk:1:35), whom God has honored by taking him to be with Him at His throne of the universe. Jesus, the Lord Messiah, Son of God is now waiting to return to this planet. He remains at the right hand of God until he is given the signal to come back to the earth. He will then inaugurate the long prayed-for Kingdom. With the saints of all the ages he will supervise the first ever successful world government. We need that day!

Taken from http://www.focusonthekingdom.org/113.pdf

Adoni Messiah

Saturday, April 25, 2009

"As a man, As God"

Saturday, March 14, 2009

60 questions on the Godhead

Monday, February 02, 2009

A Mistake Which Outdoes All Mistakes! By Anthony Buzzard

A Mistake Which Outdoes All Mistakes!

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