Shalom! My name is Adam Pastor

Welcome to ADONI MESSIAH which means
"My Lord Messiah" -
a fitting epithet to who Jesus (or Yeshua) is!

Here, I attempt to present the Apostolic Truths according to the Scriptures, that there is
One GOD, the Father, namely, YAHWEH,
and One Lord, GOD's only begotten Son,
Yeshua the Messiah.

And that one day YAHWEH will send His Son back to Earth to inaugurate the Everlasting Kingdom of GOD



Enjoy!


Wednesday, August 17, 2011

Biblical Common Sense – Jesus – Not Equal, Not the Same! By Ron Shockley

 


(The final installment in Ron Shockley's series about Jesus)

The following common sense arguments regarding how The Bible clearly demonstrates that God and Jesus are not the same being are ones that tend to come up quite often among those promoting Jesus as God. Many times I have been told in discussions with those wishing to support a Trinitarian or even a Oneness/Modalist viewpoint that these are simply tired old arguments.  Yes, the arguments are centuries old and people often tire of them. But that doesn’t mean that they still aren’t valid objections. And their validity remains all the more significant due to the fact each of these are easily answerable when one uses common sense as their guide.

  • Scripture calls Jesus a man while telling us that God is NOT a man.

Acts 2:22 “Jesus of Nazareth was a man commended to you by God with mighty deeds, wonders, and signs, which God worked through him in your midst, as you yourselves know.”

Acts 17:31: “Because He has established a day on which He will judge the world with justice through a man he has appointed, and He has provided confirmation for all by raising him from the dead.“

Vs.

Numbers 23:19 “God is not a man, that He should lie, Nor a son of man, that He should repent;..”

Hosea 11:9 “…For I am God and not man, the Holy One in your midst,…”

  • Scripture tells us that Jesus prayed to and has a God. Yet God doesn’t pray to anyone because He alone is God.

John 17:3 “This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.”

John 20:17 “Jesus said to her, “Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them,
‘I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.’

Rev. 3:12 “He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he will not go out from it anymore; and I will write on him the name of My God, and the name of the city of My God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God, and My new name.”

Vs.

Isaiah 44:6 “”Thus says YAHWEH, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, YAHWEH of hosts: ‘I am the first and I am the last, And there is no God besides Me.”

Isaiah 45:6 “That men may know from the rising to the setting of the sun That there is no one besides Me. I am YAHWEH, and there is no other,”

Isaiah 45:18 “For thus says YAHWEH, who created the heavens (He is the God who formed the earth and made it, He established it and did not create it a waste place, but formed it to be inhabited),
“I am YAHWEH, and there is none else.”

 

  • Scripture tells that Jesus was tempted.  Yet God cannot be tempted.

Matt 4:1 “Then Jesus was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil.”
(see also Mark 1:13 & Luke 4:2)

Hebrews 4:15 “For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.”

Vs.

James 1:13 “Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone.”

 

  • Scripture tells us that Jesus died. Yet God is immortal – incapable of dying.

1 Cor. 15:3 “For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures”

Vs.

1 Tim 1:17 “Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen.”

Unless you are forcing yourself to hold onto the post-Biblical creeds of man, the honest, logical, and common sense conclusion should be that Jesus is NOT literally God himself. Jesus is just who God promised His Messiah to be,
a special human MAN who would be brought into being at a point in time from the Hebrew people and “anointed” with God’s Spirit so that he could accomplish all the God wanted him to do.
This is said perfectly several times in the book of Acts.

Acts 2:22 “Jesus of Nazareth was a man commended to you by God with mighty deeds, wonders, and signs, which God worked through him in your midst, as you yourselves know.”

Acts 10:38: “how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and power. He went about doing good and healing all those oppressed by the devil, for God was with him.”

Acts 17:31: “Because He [God] has established a day on which He will judge the world with justice through a man he has appointed, and He has provided confirmation for all by raising him from the dead.“

Jesus is the promised HUMAN Messiah – the descendent of Eve, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, & David.  He is the greater Moses who was to come FROM his own people.  He was to speak and do all that God assigned him to do.  Does God tell Himself what to do? Does God anoint Himself? Does God pray to Himself? Does God go directly against what He promised and foretold about HIS begotten Son?  NO. 

Let the plain common sense truth of Scripture speak for itself.  
Jesus is the Son OF God, the Messiah.  Jesus is not God Himself.


 
The above article was taken from:
Biblical Common Sense – Jesus – Not Equal, Not the Same!

Extracts from the first seven installments are contained in the July, 2011 blog entry below.

Thursday, July 28, 2011

Biblical Common Sense by Ron Shockley

Biblical Common Sense by Ron Shockley

 


Biblical Common Sense – Introduction – What is it & Why is it important?

Common Sense, what is it? Well according to Merriam-Webster the proper definition is as follows:

Common Sense: sound and prudent judgment based on a simple perception of the situation or facts.

Wow. What an easy to comprehend definition. The very definition of common sense almost seems like “common sense”.  To be able to make a sound and prudent judgment based on a simple perception of the situation or facts sure sounds right.  It sounds like what we should always strive to do. And people do exactly that all the time, everyday.  When we drive to work and see that the sky is overly cloudy and looks like it might rain, we know it wouldn’t be wise to leave our car windows down.  If your battery powered flashlight starts getting dimmer, you understand that you might need to put new batteries in it.  Part and parcel of common sense is paying attention to the obvious.  It is using the knowledge and experience of life to see and comprehend accurately what is right in front of us. Again, common sense is plain ordinary good judgment that is not based on any specialized knowledge.

...

Like everything else in life, I try to use a common sense approach to Scripture.  I feel that it has to make sense at the most basic level.  If God is communicating to humanity throughout the generations of time through the written word (which I firmly believe He does through The Bible), then having it make sense to people is of primary importance.  Of course right here the skeptic or the Atheist could chime in and say that the Bible defies common sense.  They would say that tales of the supernatural and miracles are contrary to logic and rational thought, much less common sense.  From the viewpoint of a non-believer that can appear to be true.  But once the existence of God is recognized and faith in Him and His Holy Scriptures becomes your axiom, then miracles and other supernatural occurrences become not just possible, but entirely logical.  However the point of my presentation is not a defense of theism or The Bible, but is that within the framework of God’ written word, what practically all of believers of Scripture feel is the truth given to us from God, common sense still must be applied to it in order to properly understand what God is communicating to us.  What God articulates to us as rational cognitive thinking beings must make sense to us in order for us to understand Him. Common sense is a part of how we think and make logical judgments about life and the world around us.  That is how God created us. Common sense was made into our mental makeup by God. Hence the popularly heard term “God-given Common sense” is very accurate.  And if God gave it to us, we should definitely strive to use it as a proper guide through his written word. His instructions throughout the Bible – beginning to end, should be read using God’s gift of common sense.

...


Biblical Common Sense – Jesus – “God’s son”

 

Understanding who Jesus is and how the Bible presents him is not all that difficult when one stops and uses good ol’ common sense to recognize the meaning behind many of the words of Scripture.

As a child growing up in a strong, Bible-believing family I learned about Jesus from a very early age.  Frequently my mother would read to me from my storybook bible and from it I came to learn about all the great characters of Scripture.  From the start, I recognized that of all the characters in The Bible, Jesus was extremely important and special.  After all, he was said to be the Son OF God.  And this is the beginning of where God-given common sense comes into play. Like every other child who learns that Jesus is the Son of God, I had no problems figuring out that Jesus and God were two different beings.  The very words Father and Son let me know that God was the Daddy and Jesus was His son.  Human fathers and sons do share being related, but they are ALWAYS two different individuals.  Using father and son as descriptor nouns is incredibly easy to understand because we have that example provided for us in our own lives.  A father and a son (or a mother and daughter if you’re female) are two different individuals.  This is easy to see and is simple common sense!

Another detail that is easily grasped is that a Father is ALWAYS older than his Son. When one hears that this person is the father and this person is his son, no one would think for a second that they both have existed for the same amount of time.  Fathers are always older than their sons because fathers bring them into existence.  Sure a young child doesn’t get all the nuances of this and parents hope the reproductive details of how human fathers “create” their sons & daughters is something that comes when the child reaches an appropriate age, but it is still something that a registers in the brains of children as a part of common sense.  Fathers are older than children because once again that is how the example works. Throughout all of humanity, not to mention all of the animal world, fathers are older and are in existence longer than their sons because in order for a father to have a son, he must already be in existence and then be able to conduct a creative act to bring a son (or daughter) into existence.  This is how God designed things.  For God to make such a design and then use the easily identifiable terms “Father” and “son” to communicate to us in a way that totally contradicts His design defies common sense at its most basic level.

 


Biblical Common Sense – Jesus – “This is MY son”

 

There are two different events recorded in the New Testament where God himself vocally indicates that Jesus is His son. First at his baptism we have the accounts the three synoptic gospels.

Matt 3:16-171 After being baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove and lighting on Him, and behold, a voice out of the heavens said, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased.”

Mark 1:10-11 Immediately coming up out of the water, He saw the heavens opening, and the Spirit like a dove descending upon Him; and a voice came out of the heavens:
You are My beloved Son, in You I am well-pleased.”

Luke 3:21-22 Now when all the people were baptized, Jesus was also baptized, and while He was praying, heaven was opened, and the Holy Spirit descended upon Him in bodily form like a dove, and a voice came out of heaven, “You are My beloved Son, in You I am well-pleased.”

The second account occurs at the transfiguration and is also recorded in the three synoptic gospels.

Matt 17:5 While he was still speaking, a bright cloud overshadowed them, and behold, a voice out of the cloud said,
This is My beloved Son, with whom I am well-pleased; listen to Him!”

 Mark 9:7 Then a cloud formed, overshadowing them, and a voice came out of the cloud, “This is My beloved Son, listen to Him!”

Luke 9:35 Then a voice came out of the cloud, saying, “This is My Son, My Chosen One; listen to Him!”

In these six accounts of the two different events, we have a voice calling Jesus “His son”.  Common sense should tell us here that this voice belongs to God and that Jesus is NOT that God doing the speaking. The voice of God calls Jesus His Son.  The overall aspect of these two events much less the words given “My beloved Son” should easily provide common sense clues that Jesus and God are two separate entities. If not we have a deception on our hands of the highest order.  If Jesus was God – especially in an Oneness/”Jesus Only” sense then we are being tricked by a great act of ventriloquism. God would be performing an outright ruse to fool everyone into thinking that God and His Son were separate Father and Son entities. It would be a charade performed for the audience’s benefit (both to the people present to those events and to the many more who have read the record of those events since then in the written form of Scripture.

 


Biblical Common Sense – Jesus – The Anointed of God

But let’s go back and look at what is being said here with the word itself. If we are to honestly examine the actual, basic definition of the word, common sense should tell us that if the Messiah is someone whom God “anoints”, then it is someone OTHER THAN God. God is anointing/authorizing somebody else to perform a task. This is a very simple concept that seems to be lost or ignored by those promoting the Trinity belief that Jesus is the Messiah who is also God. If the word “Messiah” is to have any true meaning at all either Jesus is God and is NOT the Messiah. Or Jesus is the Messiah who is someone other than God. There is no other option. It is totally absurd to say God “anoints” Himself.

 


Biblical Common Sense – Jesus – The Messiah is suppose to be...

The “Original” Testament starts such a path almost from the beginning with God giving a prophecy that one day a literal descendant of Eve would defeat the Serpent (Satan) in Genesis 3:15.

Gen 3:15 – “And I will put enmity Between you and the woman, And between your seed and her seed; He shall bruise you on the head, And you shall bruise him on the heel.”

Later in Deuteronomy 18:15 & 18, God promises to bring up a future prophet like Moses from among the people of Israel’s own “brethren”.

Deut 18:15-19 “YAHWEH your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your countrymen, you shall listen to him. This is according to all that you asked of YAHWEH your God in Horeb on the day of the assembly, saying, ‘Let me not hear again the voice of YAHWEH my God, let me not see this great fire anymore, or I will die.’
“YAHWEH said to me, ‘They have spoken well. ‘I will raise up a prophet from among their countrymen like you, and I will put My words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. ‘It shall come about that whoever will not listen to My words which he shall speak in My name, I Myself will require it of him.’

Isaiah 11 promises the Messiah will come out of the human line of Jesse and that God’s Spirit “will rest on him”.

Isaiah 11:1-2 “Then a shoot will spring from the stem of Jesse, And a branch from his roots will bear fruit. The Spirit of YAHWEH will rest on Him, The spirit of wisdom and understanding, The spirit of counsel and strength, The spirit of knowledge and the fear of YAHWEH.”

Isaiah 42:1 describes the Messiah as God’s “servant” His “chosen one” whom God places (anoints) his Spirit upon.

Isaiah 42:1 “Behold, My Servant, whom I uphold; My chosen one in whom My soul delights. I have put My Spirit upon Him; He will bring forth justice to the nations. ”

Isaiah 52:14 again states that God’s servant will be a man.

Isaiah 52:14 “He was despised and forsaken of men, A man of sorrows and acquainted with grief; And like one from whom men hide their face He was despised, and we did not esteem Him.”

In the book of Jeremiah the Messiah is declared to be “raised up” as David’s “righteous branch” (23:5)

Jer. 23:5 “Behold, the days are coming,” declares YAHWEH, “When I will raise up for David a righteous Branch; And He will reign as king and act wisely And do justice and righteousness in the land.”

And that this “leader shall be one of them and their ruler shall come forth from their midst” (30:21).

Jer. 30:21 “Their leader shall be one of them, And their ruler shall come forth from their midst; And I will bring him near and he shall approach Me; For who would dare to risk his life to approach Me?’ declares YAHWEH.”

Of course it couldn’t be said any clearer than in 1st Chronicles 17:11-14, where God promises that the Messiah will be one of David’s “descendants” and “shall be of your sons”.

1 Chron 17:11-14 “When your days are fulfilled that you must go to be with your fathers, that I will set up one of your descendants after you, who will be of your sons; and I will establish his kingdom. “He shall build for Me a house, and I will establish his throne forever. “I will be his father and he shall be My son; and I will not take My lovingkindness away from him, as I took it from him who was before you. “But I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever.”

Then we have the Messianic promises that David himself wrote in the book of Psalms. Starting in Psalm 2 saying that God’s anointed will be “begotten” at a point in time (2:7) and will be established from David’s “seed forever” (89:4).

Psalm 2:7 “I will surely tell of the decree of YAHWEH: He said to Me, ‘You are My Son, Today I have begotten You.”

Psalm 89:4 “I will establish your seed forever And build up your throne to all generations.” Selah.”

Psalm 89:27 has God making the Messiah “My first-born”. This doesn’t make sense if Jesus were God, how would God make himself his own first-born?

Psalm 89:27 “I also shall make him My firstborn, The highest of the kings of the earth.”

And finally we come to Psalm 110. Here all doubts are erased and the precise declaration is provided that God’s anointed Messiah would be a human man and absolutely not God himself.
Psalm 110:1 is THE verse in the Original Testament that shows the clear distinction between God and the Messiah.

Psalm 110:1 “The LORD [YAHWEH] says to my Lord: “Sit at My right hand Until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet.” ”

It shows that there are TWO Lords. One is the LORD God Almighty and the other is addressed with the honored but fully human title of Lord.
No wonder it is the most quoted verse in the New Testament from the Hebrew Bible! To explain further, I’ll quote Anthony Buzzard as he says this better than I ever could.

“It tells us that the relationship between God and Jesus is that of Deity and non-Deity. The Messiah is called adoni (my lord) and in every one of its 195 occurrences adoni (my lord) means a superior who is not God. Adonai on the other hand refers exclusively to the One God in all of its 449 occurrences. Adonai is the title of Deity and adoni never designates Deity. If the Messiah were called Adonai this would introduce “two Gods” into the Bible and would be polytheism. Psalm 110:1 should guard us all against supposing that there are two who are God. In fact the Messiah is the supreme human being and agent of the One God. Psalm 110:1 is the Bible’s master text for defining the Son of God in relation to the One God, his Father.”
(Sir Anthony Buzzard – Focus on the Kingdom – article “Adonai and Adoni (Psalm 110:1)”)

Again here is where common sense should keep us straight.  Scripture promised a real, human man that would be a literal descendent of Eve, a literal descendent of David, a great human prophet “like Moses”. If this is what was promised by God, then this is what it had to be.  Anything else would be deceptive.  To have this be a divine member of the Godhead, or God appearing in human form, makes all these written promises from God not really mean what they say.  A pre-existent, unbegotten being just isn’t human.  And such a being is not an actual descendent of anyone since by definition that being would have existed BEFORE they ever did. 

 


Throughout the “Original” Testament God goes out of his way to say over and over that He is the one and only God of the universe and that He alone is responsible for all of creation. But God also reveals something else there and then confirms it later in the New Testament. God says that he CAN NOT be seen by man. In Exodus 33:20 God flat out tells Moses that “no man can see me and live”. Then in the Gospel of John we have collaborating texts like “No man hath seen God at any time” (John 1:18) and “You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form
(John 5:37). And in 1st Timothy we have the added facts that God is “invisible” (1 Tim 1:17) and that He “dwells in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see” (1 Tim 6:16).

Yet according to all the biblical records, Jesus was seen and heard by thousands of human beings and was perceived totally as a fellow human. How could Jesus be God in human form if God has made it abundantly clear that he can NOT be seen? Sure the typical Trinitarian response tends to be something along the lines of that since Jesus put on “human nature” that allowed him to be seen and heard just like a normal human being. So perhaps the more important, critical common sense question here would be WHY? Why would God state that he couldn’t be seen, yet then turn around and come down into human form TO BE SEEN? It seems illogical not to mention totally contradictory.

The fact of this is amplified even further when one looks at the record of the events at Sinai. In Deuteronomy 4: we find God making the concise effort to tell the Israelites that they
“saw no form” (verse 12), and that they needed to “watch yourselves carefully, since you did not see any form on the day YAHWEH spoke to you at Horeb from the midst of the fire, so that you do not act corruptly and make a grave image for yourselves in the form of any figure, the likeness of male or female” (verse 15 &16). Here God specifically went to the trouble to prohibit the Israelites from attempting to worship him in human form (or any form for that matter). Yet according to the Trinity belief (as well as Oneness), God turned right around and did this EXACT thing by appearing in human form as Jesus. This seems absurdly contradictory and well beyond the realm of good common sense.

 


The Apostle Paul wrote in Romans and 1st Corinthians detailed comparisons of Jesus and Adam.  Paul even termed Jesus the “Last Adam”.  This is because he recognized critically important parallels between these two individuals.  Adam, the father of the human race brought death upon everyone because his disobedience took away the ability for humans to live eternally. The perfect obedience of the Last Adam, Jesus the Messiah, gave humanity a way to overcome death and live eternally as originally planned.

Romans 5:12-19 (NRSV)
(12) Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death came through sin, and so death spread to all, because all have sinned—
(13) Sin was indeed in the world before the law, but sin is not reckoned when there is no law.
(14) Yet death exercised dominion from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sins were not like the transgression of Adam, who is a type of the one who was to come.
(15) But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died through the one man’s trespass, much more surely have the grace of God and the free gift in the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, abounded for the many.
(16) And the free gift is not like the effect of the one man’s sin. For the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brings justification.
(17) If, because of the one man’s trespass, death exercised dominion through that one, much more surely will those who receive the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness exercise dominion in life through the one man, Jesus Christ.
(18) Therefore just as one man’s trespass led to condemnation for all, so one man’s act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all.
(19) For just as by the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s obedience the many will be made righteous.

1 Corinthians 15:20-23
(20) But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleep
(21) For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead.
(22) For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive.
(23) But each in his own order: Christ the first fruits, after that those who are Christ’s at His coming,
(45) So also it is written, “The first MAN, Adam, BECAME A LIVING SOUL.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit.

For Paul’s two Adam analogy to work, Jesus must be on the same level as the original Adam.  For a “Last Adam” to logically be in the “Adam” category then he has to be a man just like the first.
God or the 2nd member of The Trinity coming down to earth in human form
just isn’t an “Adam” at all.  He would be God – the creator of Adam.  Sure, God could come down and get it right.  But it was a man that got us into this mess in the first place.  Shouldn’t common sense tell us that if a man that was created perfect by God and used his free will to disobey God and bring sin into the picture, then another perfectly created man with free will should be the logical counterpart to obey God and provide an escape from sin?

Common sense and the plain meaning of words makes it easy.  Jesus is called a man and is referred to as the last “Adam” because he is a MAN on the same level as the original MAN that Paul compares and contrasts each to the other.  Both were perfectly created by God.  Both were without sin but with the capacity to sin.  Adam chose to disobey and brought sin and death to his race.  Jesus chose to obey and brought about a new future for his race – eternal life instead of ... death. The simple bottom line is that Two Adam analogy posits that Adam and Jesus were both men – both real human beings.  Both were called son of God because God was their Father more so than any other humans that ever existed.  Yet only one lived up to the name and expectations of his Father and Creator! None of this analogy works properly if Jesus is God.

 


 
 
The above extracts were taken from

1. Intro

2. Jesus – God’s Son

3. Jesus – “This is MY Son”

4. Jesus – The Anointed of God

5. Jesus – The Messiah is suppose to be…

6. Jesus – Jesus Was Seen!

7. Jesus - Two Adams

Saturday, June 18, 2011

Extracts from Focus on the Kingdom - May, 2011

Extracts from Focus on the Kingdom - May, 2011

... The Gospel of the Kingdom is to resound to the far corners of the globe. Only then, Jesus said, can "the end come." Only "when  this [well-known to the NT] Gospel  of the Kingdom has been preached everywhere, internationally" can the end come (Matt. 24:14). Christians are called "disciples of the Kingdom" in Matthew 13:52.

There will be one single Parousia, and Paul described it as the event at which the saints living at the time, or sleeping in death (Ps. 13:3; Dan. 12:2; 1 Thess. [5:10]) will be caught up to meet
the Lord Jesus, to escort the royal personage as he heads towards the earth
(1 Thess. 4:13ff.). "Whether we are sleeping or awake [at his coming] we will live together with him" (1 Thess. [5:10]). In order to begin to live with him at his return, we must be dead before that time! As in Daniel 12:2, and as in the case of the dead, sleeping Lazarus, resurrection always means the coming back to life of formerly dead persons. ...

Hal Lindsay has caused a considerable confusion by forgetting that that great event in 1 Thessalonians  4 is called by Paul the Parousia, (i.e. THE Second Coming), and there is no other [coming] 
(1 Thess. 4:15). Jesus gathers the saints as he said, "immediately  after [post] the tribulation of those days" (Matt. 24:29-31). And Christians, Paul said in 2 Thessalonians 1:6-8, must expect affliction and trouble until "the Lord Jesus Christ is revealed in flaming fire taking vengeance on his enemies." That is not secret event. Paul could not have written this if he expected  a relief from suffering 7 years earlier! Nor would Jesus advise fleeing to the hills, if "lift-off" is promised.

Although Harold Camping of Family Radio says that the end of the world will occur on May 21, he will be proved wrong very soon, after selling lots of books, as he also did in the 80's with another failed prediction. ... The SDA's were sure that 1844 was the Second Coming and JW's knew that 1914 was the date! But the mathematics behind these failed prophecies are now seen to be quite unintelligent!

...

 

Jesus' Long-Form Birth Certificate Released by Luke and Matthew, 2000 Years Ago

... Some of the public seem terribly exercised about the right of President Obama to be in office. The issue is where was he born? Where is he from? The public seems unconcerned about the angel Michael-Jesus (promoted by 7 million JW's) or the God-Jesus offered them by standard forms of the faith, propagated weekly by the slogan that Jesus IS God. How many YHVH's does that make, since the Father is certainly Yahweh? Sounds like two, which is one too many. Matthew provides basic information about the ORIGIN of Jesus, genesis of Jesus. This is not just his birth, but his origin. Who was Jesus originally? We can know about the origin and the birth certificate of Jesus by reading Luke and Matthew. 

The JW's invited us recently to take part in the celebration of their annual Passover, and their tract told us that Jesus "came down from heaven" as a transformed angel. What they did not say was that "every good gift comes down from heaven" (James 1:17; 3:15). What they did not say is that Jesus said his "flesh, which is bread, came down from heaven" (John 6:51). Is this not obviously non-literal language?

 

...

Who is the Blessed Seed of Abraham?

... The golden key verse in Galatians 3:29 :- "if we are biblical Christians, we are reckoned as Abraham's children (seed) and are thus heirs to the promises." This verse is a backbone to NT theology and when neglected or rejected leads to the collapse of much of NT theology. Without this text firmly in place all sorts of chaos results. Some lost track of Galatians 3:29 when they misapplied "I will bless those who bless you" to the  physical descendants of Abraham. But that is to misunderstand Galatians 3. The Christian concern is not with the politics of this age. Galatians 3:29 defines who for the moment are the true seed of Abraham. Jesus spent a lot of his time trying to persuade hostile Jews that unless they accepted him as Messiah they no longer counted as the true people of God. The time is coming, Hosea says, that Israel, now reckoned as "not My people" (Hos. 1: 9-10) will one day repent and be restored. But that has not happened yet.

I personally find verses like Matthew 19:28 and Galatians 3:29 absolutely thrilling as well as humbling. Imagine that! We, whoever we are in terms of national background, are now honored by the great God with the status of Abraham's sons and daughters, because we have believed and obeyed the unique and final agent of God, the Lord Messiah Jesus (Luke 2:11). And if we are now constituted the children of Abraham then we are going to inherit the very promises made to Abraham and to Jesus. "The promise to Abraham," we remember, was that "he would inherit the world" (Rom. 4:13). Sounds awfully like the almost entirely ignored saying of Jesus that the meek are going to  inherit  the earth (quoting about 6 passages in Ps. 37). And Matthew 19:28 spells out in the plainest terms the role of the Apostles in  the future Kingdom on earth, when Jesus comes.

Dispensationalism which underlies most American "fundamentalist" churches has given away the promise of Matthew 5:5 to unconverted Jews and thus robbed true Christians of their inheritance and Abraham's. The meek will inherit the land - not "go to heaven." Unconverted Jews must accept the Messiah who has come, in order to inherit the land and be true children of Abraham.

The Second Coming and Christian Destiny

... Yes, indeed, Jesus is coming visibly. He is really coming back. But the NIV gets it all wrong when it says that Jesus went  back to heaven at the ascension (John 13:3; 16:28; 20:17). ...

The Second Coming is not a "drive through" by which the Messiah swoops down in the clouds only to do a U-turn and disappear again into heaven. That would not be a Second Coming at all. This non-second coming would mean that 23 million SDA's are right (and I fear they have been misled here on a large scale), when they say that only the Devil will be on earth for a 1000 years. It is the Devil who does not want Jesus back on earth. That will be the time when he is bound and imprisoned not on earth but in the abyss, and his crippling present "deceiving of the whole world" (Rev. 12:9) will come to a screeching halt (Rev. 20:3).

It is fascinating to me that A.T. (not J.A.T.) Robertson in his famous word pictures (available with BibleWorks software) says that it is unclear what Jesus meant in Matthew 19:28. Unclear? Jesus had just been asked the worthy question by Peter: "What can we expect to receive as reward at the end of this titanic struggle against the forces of popular religion? What's in it for us?" Jesus was fully responsive and certainly not rebuking with his forthright answer. "Let me tell you on the authority of the God I serve, Amen, amen I tell you: at the rebirth of the world, when the Son of Man sits on his throne of glory, you too will be seated on 12 thrones to administer the 12 tribes of Israel."

How many sermons are you hearing on these shatteringly interesting words of Jesus? My impression is that in church people would just like to think that Jesus died and rose, but not much else in the teaching of Jesus seems to get the sort of publicity it deserves. This text of course is repeated in Luke 22[:29-30] where the new administration, with the 12 tribes regathered in the land, is said to be the core of the New Covenant. The apostles are promised seats at the dinner table with Messiah! And positions of administrative responsibility with Messiah.

Acts 1:6 arises out of this major topic of course. "Is this the time for you to restore the Kingdom to Israel?" This is the question, I remind you, and do tell all your friends, where Calvin commented, "There are more errors in that question [about the restored national sovereignty to Israel] than there are words." About 16 errors! ...

"Jewish Roots"

Much time has been wasted on a false attempt to get at the Jewishness of Jesus in areas where no challenge to mainstream is necessary. I mean the emphasis by some on the Jewish calendar and especially the claim that the fourth commandment is now binding on us all in the letter. 

The NT seems quite content with the use of "Lord" (Kurios) for God and, as Joe Martin points out, stresses the use of "Father," now that the Son has come. This is the wonderful new thing in the New Covenant. The NT actually takes the  idea of the name of YHVH, "the one who is and was and is to come," and puts it into Greek for us in Revelation 1:4, 8; 4:8; 11:17; 16:5.

What is not always noted is that when Jesus is called "lord" (following the adoni, "my lord," of Ps. 110:1), the Greek very frequently has the definite article "the Lord (Jesus)." When Kurios is without the article it very often (not invariably) designates the LORD GOD (Kurios, Yahweh). One cannot say "the Yahweh," or "my Yahweh." It is a proper name.

...

Then the important issue of the future and final restoration of national Israel (Rom. [Chs.] 9-11).  "The deliverer will come and remove ungodliness from JACOB."

Paul has "great sorrow about my natural kinsmen, who are  Israelites" (not the church). Happily there presently is an Israel not limited to physical Israel, i.e. true believers, the Israel of God of Galatians 6:16, the true circumcision, which is us (Phil. 3:3; Gal. 3:29, as distinct from the "Israel of the flesh" (1 Cor. 10:18). The real international children of Abraham are now drawn from both Jews and Gentiles, via Isaac and Sarah, and the promises. The children of the flesh are not currently the same as the Israel of the spirit. The New Covenant has included us all, Americans, Brits, Australians and people of every nation in the true people of God, what Paul calls the "true circumcision" (Phil. 3:3).

Then Paul goes on: The Gentiles not pursuing righteousness attained the right way and Israel (i.e. Israelites) seeking it with Law did not. My prayer is for THEIR salvation (not the church). They (not the church) have a zeal for God but without the right knowledge. Israel knew, but did not respond. "I stretched forth my hand to a disobedient and obstinate people" (not the church).

There is currently a remnant, however; the rest (not the church) are hardened and are enemies of the Gospel. They do not now count as God's true people. If they do not continue in hardness they can be grafted in again. A partial hardening has happened to them (not the church) UNTIL the full quota of Gentiles has come in and so "all Israel," the ones now partially hardened, will be saved:
i.e. "blindness will be removed from Jacob." From the point of view of the Gospel THEY (not the church) are enemies for your (the church's) sake. So now, in the "now" of that future, they will be shown mercy.

This leads to Matthew 19:28 and Acts 1:6 and Micah 2:5 and Isaiah 19. Here we have whole nations who are God's people, a thing impossible today since the kingdoms of this world are not yet the Kingdom of God.

Denominations

It is interesting to challenge audiences with the rather bewildering state of disagreement by major blocs of those claiming to believe: How did the Watchtower Society manage to convince millions that Jesus is Michael the archangel? In Hebrews 1 there are two passages which absolutely exclude the idea that Jesus was ever an angel. Listen! "Jesus is  far superior to the angels, for to which one of the angels did God ever say 'You are my Son; Today I have begotten you'?" [Heb. 1:5] Then, "To which one of the angels did God ever say, 'Sit at my right hand till I make your enemies your footstool'?" (Heb. 1:13). To no angel did God ever say the things he said only to his SON, Jesus. Very convincing also is the fact that Michael is said to be "one of the chief angels" (Dan. 10:13). One of a category of archangels. Jesus is not  one of any category. Jesus is unique in his category as the sole Messiah, Son of David, of God and of Mary. JW's claim to be "one of Jehovah's Witnesses" - and they mean just that. Show them then that Jesus cannot be "one of the archangels." He cannot therefore be Michael. Anyway a holy angel is immortal, and so Michael could not have died for the sins of the world as the Son of God who died!

How is it that 1 billion people, not more nor less intelligent than ourselves, can believe that Mary was sinless, that she never had normal relations with her husband and was taken physically to heaven at death? That she and other "saints" respond to the lighting  of candles and to prayer?

How do you get 23 million SDA's to believe that when the millennium comes the earth will be vacated of human beings and only Satan will remain on the earth? You achieve this amazing feat when a single lady, Ellen G. White persuaded them all that she was "more than a prophetess." But did anyone note what she did with Isaiah 24:6 which states that after a vast depopulation of the world effected by the Day of the Lord, the great and terrible day of the LORD's wrath, "few men are left." Ellen White, if you will look at her tome  The Great Controversy  (p. 769), you will find that she simply left out the words "few men are left" in Isaiah 24:6. This persuaded her millions of followers of an empty earth for 1000 years. She also predicted the Second Coming for 1844, and when it did not happen, she constructed a theory which stated that a special new event happened in heaven in that year. Later SDA scholars who challenged this were dismissed.

... 

Do Evangelicals Preach the Gospel?

Following Steve Katsaras' challenging and radical appeal for belief in the right Jesus and not a threatening "another Jesus," may I ask kindly a similar radical question?

I start with a fascinating quote from the mammoth three-volume tome by G.N Peters, The Coming Kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. I am still thrilled and impressed with one of his opening statements:

"The New Testament begins the announcement of the Kingdom in terms expressive of its being previously well-known...The preaching of the Kingdom, its simple announcement, without the least attempt to explain its meaning and nature, the very language in which it was conveyed to the Jews - all presupposed that it was a subject familiar to all. John the Baptist, Jesus and the Seventy all proclaimed the Kingdom in a way without definition or explanation that indicated that their hearers were acquainted with its meaning" (Vol. 1:181).

The Testimony of John the Baptist and Jesus to the Kingdom of God

"Jesus frequently appealed to the Old Testament as a divine revelation whose meaning he and his audience held, or ought to hold, in common ["If you misunderstand the OT you will automatically misunderstand the New."]

Moses, according to Jesus, had written about the Messiah. But if one were not prepared to believe what Moses wrote, it would be impossible to believe what Jesus said (John 5:46-47). After the resurrection Jesus chided the disciples for their failure to grasp what the prophets had spoken (Luke 24:25-27). This implies that what the prophets wrote was intelligible. There existed already clear evidence of the trustworthiness and factuality of the prophets' predictions. Micah had predicted the birthplace of the Messiah. Isaiah had foreseen the Messiah's activity as a miracle worker and healer (Isa. 35:5-6)." (Micah had predicted the details of the origin of the Messiah as being from ancient times. The translation "from everlasting" in the KJV is very misleading.)

Peters again: "The meaning Jesus attached to the word Kingdom of God can only have been the meaning given to that phrase in the Old Testament. If another concept were intended by 'Kingdom of God,' some explanation would be required at the beginning of John the Baptist's ministry to avoid misunderstanding. The facts are that John makes his announcement of the Kingdom on the presumption that his audience knew what the Kingdom was. They reacted by coming to John for baptism. They could not have done this in the absence of information about what the Kingdom was."

Jesus spoke to Israel, to whom the oracles of God had been entrusted (Rom. 3:1-2), and according to Paul he came to confirm the promises made to the fathers (Rom. 15:8; Acts 13:32). The Kingdom was itself the subject of the divine promise as "the kingdom which God has promised to those who love Him" (James 2[:5]). It is impossible therefore that Jesus could have opened his ministry in Galilee by announcing the Kingdom of God in any sense other than that which was intelligible to himself and his audience.

Now what was that sense? Though the phrase "Kingdom of God" does not appear exactly in that form in the Hebrew Bible, the idea is so ubiquitous that John Bright declares that the whole Bible might rightly be called the book about the coming Kingdom.

A locus classicus for defining the Kingdom of God is 1 Chronicles 28. King David addressed an assemblage of officials declaring that God had chosen him to be king over Israel forever (1 Chron. 28:4). Likewise God had selected Solomon to sit on the throne of the Kingdom of the LORD [YAHWEH] over Israel [1 Chron. 28:5]. Solomon was duly crowned king of the united kingdom of Israel. They "anointed him as ruler for the LORD [YAHWEH]" (1 Chron. 29:22), whereupon "he sat on the throne of the LORD [YAHWEH] as king in the place of David his father; and he prospered and all Israel obeyed him." [1 Chron. 29:23] Subsequently Abijah succeeded to the throne of Judah and when confronted with the opposing armies of Israel under Jeroboam, he reminded the latter that "the LORD [YAHWEH] God of Israel gave the rule over Israel to David forever and his sons by a  covenant of salt" (2 Chron. 13:5). It would therefore be unwise for Jeroboam to "resist the Kingdom of the LORD [YAHWEH] in the hands of the sons of David" (2 Chron. 13:8).

There can be no doubt that the Kingdom of the LORD [YAHWEH] means the Kingdom administered by the royal house of David. It still means that. The Davidic covenant had named the Davidic throne as the Kingdom of God when Nathan had said to David, "I will settle him [David's descendant] in my house and in my Kingdom forever and his throne shall be established forever"
(1 Chron. 17:14).

The Kingdom of God therefore meant the empire ruled by the dynasty of David over Israel in the promised land. Its capital was Jerusalem, and it functioned on behalf of God Himself and could therefore be called both God's Kingdom and David's Kingdom.

The political and territorial nature of the kingdom is made clear in numbers of other significant passages in the Hebrew Bible. The prophet Obadiah describes the Kingdom of the LORD as a time when Israel rules over former enemies. The supremacy of Israel is achieved when "deliverers ascend Mount Zion to judge [in the Hebraic sense "administer"] the mountain of Esau, and the Kingdom will be the LORD's [YAHWEH's]" (Obad. 21). Again the political and territorial character of the Kingdom of God is crystal clear. So it is in Daniel 2:44 where "the God of Heaven will set up a kingdom which will never be destroyed, and that kingdom will not be left for another people; it will crush and put an end to all these other [preceding] kingdoms and it will itself endure forever."
This empire is further described as a time when "the saints will possess the kingdom and all kingdoms and dominions will serve them" (Dan. 7:22, 27). It is located "under the whole heaven"
[Dan. 7:27].

Kingdom data appears in equally unambiguous terms in Isaiah 16:5: "A throne will be established in lovingkindness and a judge will sit on it in faithfulness in the tent of David." Micah's Messianic prediction foresees a time coming when "the LORD [YAHWEH] will reign over Israel in Mount Zion...Even the former dominion will come, the Kingdom of the daughter of Jerusalem" (Micah 4:7-8). It is a well-known fact that the Targums [Jewish commentary] elucidate these passages with the paraphrase: "The Kingdom of God will be revealed." Zechariah forecasts that the Messiah will "speak peace to the nations and his dominion will be from sea to sea, and from the River [Euphrates] to the ends of the earth." [Zec. 9:10] Sounds very much like the promise of the One God, the Father to His Son: "Ask me and I will give you the ends of the earth as your inheritance." [Psa 2:8]

Two further passages are of prime importance for establishing the  territorial and political nature of the Kingdom as well as its thoroughly spiritual dimension as a kingdom initiated by Yahweh Himself. In Isaiah 40[:5] "the glory of the LORD [YAHWEH] is to be revealed." This will mean the evangelization of the cities of Zion when the Lord GOD [Lord YAHWEH] "will come with might with his arm ruling for him." [Isaiah 40:10] Once again the Targum recognizes in these events the revelation of the Kingdom of God. Zephaniah reports that following a period of severe judgment, and beyond the Day of the LORD, "the King of Israel, the LORD [YAHWEH], will be in their midst." [Zeph. 3:15] Zion is comforted with the promise that the LORD will be present as a victorious warrior (Zeph. 3:17). The LORD [YAHWEH] of course will be there in the presence of His unique Son the returning Jesus.

Finally in Isaiah 52:7 there is a passage saturated with Gospel and Kingdom terminology. The announcement is made to Zion that "Your God reigns," resulting in the restoration of Zion and the comfort and redemption of Jerusalem (Isa. 52:8-9, just what the NT saints were expecting). The Kingdom thus established is viewed by "all the nations" (Isa. 52:10). Appropriately the Targum sees in these events the setting up of the Kingdom of God. The phrase "your God reigns" or more accurately "your God has assumed kingship" marks a definite new era of history  on earth. There is nothing abstract about the kingdom, nor is the eternal sovereignty of God the subject of these grand prophecies. It is rather a political event marking the intervention of the deity to take control of the Kingdom by installing His ruler as head of a theocracy in Jerusalem. The basis of the concept is found in the Davidic covenant which anticipates a descendant, a member of the House of David presiding over the kingdom in the promised land. Compare Psalm 96[:10]: "The LORD [YAHWEH] has assumed his kingship." He has begun to reign in a way in which he has not yet ever done. Exactly as Revelation 11:15-18 predicts that at the 7th trumpet, the moment when the now sleeping dead return to conscious existence, the LORD [YAHWEH] and His Messiah will begin to reign (the aorists are ingressive, meaning that the action begins).

In view of this mass of convergent evidence it must be plain that when Jesus announced the Kingdom of God, he did not need to tell his audience that there was going to be such a thing. It is surprising that commentaries have not made the political, territorial and national aspects of the Kingdom God known to readers. It must be clear that Jesus was not talking into the air when he announced the near approach of the Kingdom of God. The Kingdom was something deeply embedded in the national consciousness of Israel and unambiguously defined by the Hebrew text and Targums. What has severely hampered understanding of the nature of the Kingdom of God is the well-worn theory that Jesus must have been speaking of a spiritual and not a political and geographical kingdom.

A Jew might legitimately object that a kingdom managed by the anointed Messiah ruling in Jerusalem is utterly spiritual. It is both spiritual and political, both national and universal. The fallacy of so much commentary and unexamined church tradition has been to set spiritual against political as though these are mutually exclusive ideas. However in Scripture this is not the case. A prophecy which spelled out the geographical place on earth at which the Messiah was to be born (Micah 5:2) was no less spiritual than the prophecy of his suffering for the sins of the world (Isa. 53). The prophecy which announced the conception of the Messiah from a virgin was equally and thoroughly spiritual, though related to a particular Israelite virgin living in a specific location and an exact time in history, 6 months later than the conception of John the Baptist.

It cannot be reasonably argued that Jesus meant anything by Kingdom of God in Mark 1:14-15 than his heritage had transmitted to him. Only on that basis  can his opening gospel salvo have been intelligible. Only on that simple basis can he not have wiped out OT Scripture! There is a mass of New Testament evidence to corroborate the local, geographical and political nature of the Kingdom. Two passages in Luke tie the kingdom to geography. There was an occasion during the ministry of Jesus near Jerusalem that his audience thought that the kingdom would appear immediately. 
[Luke 19:11-27] Of course, the King was in the proximity of the Kingdom's capital city, the city of the great King. Their conception of the Kingdom as having its capital in the holy land was absolutely right. Now Jesus did not correct this expectation. The parable he gave was to clarify the fact that the Kingdom would not appear  immediately. He taught that there was to be an interval during which he as Messiah would be absent. During that time he would acquire his right to rule in the Kingdom. He would then return to rule in the Kingdom, dealing at that time with opponents who resisted his royal authority. Jesus would then be in the position of judge and would be authorized to "slay his enemies" who did not want the Messiah to rule over them! A shattering warning for us all.

Luke reports also that Jesus expected that many would arrive from east, west, north and south and join the resurrected patriarchs in the Kingdom of God (Matt. 8:11; Luke 13:28-29). The picture would naturally evoke in the minds of those familiar with the Hebrew Bible the Messianic banquet described by Isaiah 25:6-7 as a dinner including fine wines. The banquet was to take place "on this mountain," that is, in Jerusalem.

All this may be obvious to Abrahamically trained people, but it is certainly not clear in the various evangelical circles I have recently encountered. All I heard about was "heaven." The political and territorial nature of the Kingdom is absent from that "heaven" Gospel. The question is, how far can one misdefine the Kingdom of God and still count the resultant message the true Gospel?

Might not Jesus say to churches today, "You are gravely mistaken, not knowing the Scripture nor the power of God"? Jesus had just explained to them the rather elementary fact that since God is the God of the living and since it was well recognized that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were still dead and buried, then that future blessed resurrection was the  only way that the faithful dead could be reunited in one glorious throng ready to take up their positions in the Kingdom. 

Bishop [N. Tom] Wright for all his skills and talents still does not get this right! He speaks of the resurrection as  "life after life after death." But then curious blindness leads him to tell us that the Parousia in Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke 21 happened in AD 70!

All this about the Kingdom and the Gospel, I think we need to be reminded, is not just "eschatology." It is the throbbing and life-giving heart of the saving Gospel as Jesus and Paul preached it. The cry still goes out from the risen Messiah: "Repent and believe the Gospel of the Kingdom" (Mark 1:14-15). "I must preach the Gospel of the Kingdom of God: that is why God sent me" (Luke 4:43). That cry is summarized in the Great Commission to baptize everyone everywhere who will respond to the Gospel as Jesus and Paul preached it. The command to baptize is not an optional extra! It is part of the handful of very simple and basic commands. Peter is insistent that even after Gentiles had received the spirit they be baptized in water. Who can prevent the water? he asks. [Acts 10:47-48] 

... Baptism in water is one of those very basic simple NT teachings, practiced by Jesus, John, Paul and Peter. It is a NT given, not open to question, if words have plain meanings. ...
("Who can forbid the water…?")

... The 1000 years - I would urge us all to be able to defend the truth of the millennium with passion and excitement. It might be good to not get excessively overheated about  an immediate second coming. Adventists have a record over the past centuries of "knowing that world events show that Jesus is bound to come almost immediately." This of course never means that we should be asleep. We should be "always abounding in the work of the Lord" (1 Cor. 15:58).

We should pay attention too to both Jesus' and Paul's warnings that certain events must happen first. I suggest that the Markan "When you see the Abomination of Desolation standing where HE ought not to" (the RV corrected the KJV as early as 1881) was the main sign Jesus gave of the impending end. He was asked, "What will be the sign of your coming and the end of the age?" There is a single Antichrist figure (1 John 2:18), whom Jesus slays with the breath of mouth at his coming in  2 Thessalonians 2:8. This figure for Paul is traced to Isaiah 11:4 where the King of Assyria is the expected final tyrant. The Beast in Revelation is also seen as a HE, a single person, when John gives him a masculine pronoun in Revelation 17:11 and 13:14 (the word for Beast is actually neuter, so John is making a special point here, as Mark in Mark 13:14: "the abomination standing where HE ought not to"). The Beast/Abomination is a person, just as that wicked person comes to "his end" (Dan. 9:26b) in the final and decisive destruction brought by God in Jesus.

Father and Son

As [Biblical] unitarians I think we have to be careful to remain both Father and Son centered. Paul thanked Jesus for putting him in ministry and Jesus was worshiped not as God but
as the human lamb
. ... Jesus is that one man mediator, and comforter. ...

We certainly all have our work cut out to be "steadfast and immovable, always abounding in the work of the Lord, knowing that our toil is not in vain" (1 Cor. 15:58). Jesus and Paul did not have to face quite the chaos of clamoring religious arguments and divisions we have today. Finding and holding truth may seem rather like finding a needle in a haystack. But I am convinced we have truths to which we must hold fast for our own salvation and in order to pass them on, polished and refined, to our successors. It still remains an overwhelmingly interesting fact that Jesus promised to send scribes, trained Bible personnel (Matt. 23:34), and he interpreted as among the righteous those "instructors" who make many righteous (Matt. 13:43; Dan. 12:2). A very unpopular text is Isaiah 53:11 where the Messiah, servant "makes many righteous by his knowledge." The Son came "to give us  an understanding that we might come to know God" (1 John 5:20).

All this is based on Abraham's and Jesus' example, so loved by Paul, who twice quotes the amazingly simple truth that Abraham believed God and this was reckoned to him as making him right (not wrong), straight and no longer crooked (Gen. 15:6 cited by Paul in Gal. 3:6 and Rom. 4:3). To Abraham was promised "progeny, prosperity and property." We become heirs of these promises through the "obedience of faith" (Rom. 1:5; 16:26) and in Jesus.

Wednesday, May 11, 2011

Jesus Clearly Is Not Almighty God, If Jesus is Almighty God ...

I came across some articles on the Net which consisted of:

1) a coherent and indisputable case for the difference between the ONE Almighty GOD, the Father; and His Son, our Lord Jesus Christ;

2) followed by some very pertinent questions. 

What follows therefore, is a combination of extracts from these articles:

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
 
Jesus Clearly Is Not Almighty God

JESUS never claimed to be God. Everything he said about himself indicates that he did not consider himself equal to God in any way--not in power, not in knowledge, not in age.

In every period of his existence, whether on earth or in heaven, his speech and conduct reflect subordination to God.

God is always the superior, Jesus the lesser one who was created by God.

 

Jesus Distinguished From God

 

TIME and again, Jesus showed that he was a creature separate from God and that he, Jesus, had a God above him, a God whom he worshiped, a God whom he called "Father." In prayer to God, that is, the Father, Jesus said, "You, the only true God." (John 17:3) At John 20:17 he said to Mary Magdalene: "I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God." ...
At 2 Corinthians 1:3 the apostle Paul confirms this relationship: "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ." Since Jesus had a God, his Father, he could not at the same time be that God.

The apostle Paul had no reservations about speaking of Jesus and God as distinctly separate: "For us there is one God, the Father, . . . and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ." (1 Corinthians 8:6, JB) The apostle shows the distinction when he mentions "the presence of God and of Christ Jesus and of the elect angels." (1 Timothy 5:21, ...) Just as Paul speaks of Jesus and the angels as being distinct from one another in heaven, so too are Jesus and God.

Jesus' words at John 8:17, 18 are also significant. He states: "In your own Law it is written, 'The witness of two men is true.' I am one that bears witness about myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness about me." Here Jesus shows that he and the Father, that is, Almighty God, must be two distinct entities, for how else could there truly be two witnesses?

Jesus further showed that he was a separate being from God by saying: "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone." (Mark 10:18, JB) So Jesus was saying that no one is as good as God is, not even Jesus himself. God is good in a way that separates him from Jesus.

 

God's Submissive Servant

 

TIME and again, Jesus made statements such as: "The Son cannot do anything at his own pleasure, he can only do what he sees his Father doing." (John 5:19, ...) "I have come down from heaven to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 6:38) "What I teach is not mine, but belongs to him that sent me." (John 7:16) Is not the sender superior to the one sent?

This relationship is evident in Jesus' illustration of the vineyard. He likened God, his Father, to the owner of the vineyard, who traveled abroad and left it in the charge of cultivators, who represented the Jewish clergy. When the owner later sent a slave to get some of the fruit of the vineyard, the cultivators beat the slave and sent him away empty-handed. Then the owner sent a second slave, and later a third, both of whom got the same treatment. Finally, the owner said: "I will send my son [Jesus] the beloved. Likely they will respect this one." But the corrupt cultivators said: "'This is the heir; let us kill him, that the inheritance may become ours.' With that they threw him outside the vineyard and killed him." (Luke 20:9-16) Thus Jesus illustrated his own position as one being sent by God to do God's will, just as a father sends a submissive son.

The followers of Jesus always viewed him as a submissive servant of God, not as God's equal. They prayed to God about "thy holy servant Jesus, whom thou didst anoint, . . . and signs and wonders are performed through the name of thy holy servant Jesus."
--Acts 4:27, 30, ...

 

 God Superior at All Times

 

AT THE very outset of Jesus' ministry, when he came up out of the baptismal water, God's voice from heaven said: "This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved." (Matthew 3:16, 17) Was God saying that he was his own son, that he approved himself, that he sent himself? No, God the Creator was saying that He, as the superior, was approving a lesser one, His Son Jesus, for the work ahead.

Jesus indicated his Father's superiority when he said: "[YAHWEH's] spirit is upon me, because he anointed me to declare good news to the poor." (Luke 4:18) Anointing is the giving of authority or a commission by a superior to someone who does not already have authority. Here God is plainly the superior, for He anointed Jesus, giving him authority that he did not previously have.

Jesus made his Father's superiority clear when the mother of two disciples asked that her sons sit one at the right and one at the left of Jesus when he came into his Kingdom. Jesus answered: "As for seats at my right hand and my left, these are not mine to grant; they belong to those to whom they have been allotted by my Father," that is, God.
(Matthew 20:23, JB) Had Jesus been Almighty God, those positions would have been his to give. But Jesus could not give them, for they were God's to give, and Jesus was not God.

Jesus' own prayers are a powerful example of his inferior position. When Jesus was about to die, he showed who his superior was by praying: "Father, if you wish, remove this cup from me. Nevertheless, let, not my will, but yours take place." (Luke 22:42) To whom was he praying? To a part of himself? No, he was praying to someone entirely separate, his Father, God, whose will was superior and could be different from his own, the only One able to "remove this cup."

Then, as he neared death, Jesus cried out: "My God, my God, why have you deserted me?" (Mark 15:34, JB) To whom was Jesus crying out? To himself or to part of himself? Surely, that cry, "My God," was not from someone who considered himself to be God. And if Jesus were God, then by whom was he deserted? Himself? That would not make sense. Jesus also said: "Father, into your hands I entrust my spirit." (Luke 23:46) If Jesus were God, for what reason should he entrust his spirit to the Father?

After Jesus died, he was in the tomb for ... three days. If he were God, then Habakkuk 1:12 is wrong when it says: "O my God, my Holy One, you do not die." But the Bible says that Jesus did die and was unconscious in the tomb. And who resurrected Jesus from the dead? If he was truly dead, he could not have resurrected himself. ... So it was "God [who] resurrected [Jesus] by loosing the pangs of death." (Acts 2:24) The superior, God Almighty, raised the lesser, his servant Jesus, from the dead.

Does Jesus' ability to perform miracles, such as resurrecting people, indicate that he was God? Well, the apostles and the prophets Elijah and Elisha had that power too, but that did not make them more than men. God gave the power to perform miracles to the prophets, Jesus, and the apostles to show that He was backing them. But it did not make any of them part of a plural Godhead.

 

Jesus Had Limited Knowledge

 

WHEN Jesus gave his prophecy about the end of this [age], he stated: "But of that day or that hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father." (Mark 13:32, ...) Had Jesus been the equal Son, part of a Godhead, he would have known what the Father knows. But Jesus did not know, for he was not equal to God.

Similarly, we read at Hebrews 5:8 that Jesus "learned obedience from the things he suffered." Can we imagine that God had to learn anything? No, but Jesus did, for he did not know everything that God knew. And he had to learn something that God never needs to learn--obedience. God never has to obey anyone.

The difference between what God knows and what Christ knows also existed when Jesus was resurrected to heaven to be with God. Note the first words of the last book of the Bible: "The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him." (Revelation 1:1, ...) If Jesus himself were part of a Godhead, would he have to be given a revelation by another part of the Godhead--God? Surely he would have known all about it, for God knew. But Jesus did not know, for he was not God.

 

 Jesus Continues Subordinate

 

... Jesus was subordinate to God. After his resurrection, he continues to be in a subordinate, secondary position.

Speaking of the resurrection of Jesus, Peter and those with him told the Jewish Sanhedrin: "God exalted this one [Jesus] . . . to his right hand." (Acts 5:31) Paul said: "God exalted him to a superior position." (Philippians 2:9) If Jesus had been God, how could Jesus have been exalted, that is, raised to a higher position than he had previously enjoyed? He would already have been an exalted part of the Trinity. If, before his exaltation, Jesus had been equal to God, exalting him any further would have made him superior to God.

Paul also said that Christ entered "heaven itself, so that he could appear in the actual presence of God on our behalf." (Hebrews 9:24, JB) If you appear in someone else's presence, how can you be that person? You cannot. You must be different and separate.

Similarly, just before being stoned to death, the martyr Stephen "gazed into heaven and caught sight of God's glory and of Jesus standing at God's right hand." (Acts 7:55) Clearly, he saw two separate individuals--but no holy spirit, no Trinity Godhead.

In the account at Revelation 4:8 to 5:7, God is shown seated on his heavenly throne, but Jesus is not. He has to approach God to take a scroll from God's right hand. This shows that in heaven Jesus is not God but is separate from him.

 

In agreement with the foregoing, the Bulletin of the John Rylands Library in Manchester, England, states: "In his post-resurrection heavenly life, Jesus is portrayed as retaining a personal individuality every bit as distinct and separate from the person of God as was his in his life on earth as the terrestrial Jesus. Alongside God and compared with God, he appears, indeed, as yet another heavenly being in God's heavenly court, just as the angels were--though as God's Son, he stands in a different category, and ranks far above them."
--Compare Philippians 2:11.

The Bulletin also says: "What, however, is said of his life and functions as the celestial Christ neither means nor implies that in divine status he stands on a par with God himself and is fully God. On the contrary, in the New Testament picture of his heavenly person and ministry we behold a figure both separate from and subordinate to God."

In the everlasting future ..., Jesus will continue to be a separate, subordinate servant of God. The Bible expresses it this way: "After that will come the end, when he [Jesus ...] will hand over the kingdom to God the Father . . . Then the Son himself will be subjected to the One who has subjected everything to him, so that God may be all in all."
--1 Corinthians 15:24, 28, NJB

  

 Jesus Never Claimed to Be God

 

THE Bible's position is clear. Not only is Almighty God, [YAHWEH], a personality separate from Jesus but He is at all times his superior. Jesus is always presented as separate and lesser, a humble servant of God. That is why the Bible plainly says that "the head of the Christ is God" in the same way that "the head of every man is the Christ." (1 Corinthians 11:3)
And this is why Jesus himself said: "The Father is greater than I." John 14:28, ...

The fact is that Jesus is not God and never claimed to be. This is being recognized by an increasing number of scholars. As the Rylands Bulletin states: "The fact has to be faced that New Testament research over, say, the last thirty or forty years has been leading an increasing number of reputable New Testament scholars to the conclusion that Jesus . . . certainly never believed himself to be God."

The Bulletin also says of first-century Christians: "When, therefore, they assigned [Jesus] such honorific titles as Christ, Son of man, Son of God and Lord, these were ways of saying not that he was God, but that he did God's work."

Thus, even some religious scholars admit that the idea of Jesus being God opposes the entire testimony of the Bible. There, God is always the superior, and Jesus is the subordinate servant.

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If Jesus is Almighty God ...


 

  • Then why is "God, head of Christ just as Christ, is head of man"?(1 Cor. 11:3)
  • Then why does Scripture consistently phrase Jesus as a separate person from God?
    (John 20:17; John 14:1; Mark 10:18; John 17:1-3; etc.
    Also in heaven, 1 Cor. 11:3; Luke 22:69; etc.)
  • Then how can Jesus have a God? Could Almighty God have a God?
    (Mic. 5:4; Ps. 45:6, 7; 89:26; John 20:17; Rom. 15:6; 2 Cor. 1:3; Eph 1:3; Col 1:3; Mark 15:34; John 17:1-3;
    Also in heaven, Rev. 1:6; 3:2, 12)
  • Then why does Rev. 3:14 say that Jesus is "the beginning of the creation of God"?
  • Then why is he subject to GOD, like we're subject to him?(1 Cor. 15:27, 28; [Eph. 1:22])
  • Then why does Jesus not know what God knows?(Matt. 24:36, [Mark 13:32]; Rev.1:1; Luke 8:45)
  • Then why is Jesus still subject to God when he is as high as he will ever be?(1 Cor. 15:27, 28)
  • Then why is he not powerful enough to subject things to himself?(1 Cor. 15:27, Eph. 1:17, 22)
  • Then why would he have to be given any power and authority?(Mt. 28:18; 11:27; [John 5:27]; 17:2; 3:35; 2 Pet. 1:17)
  • Then why did he have to learn anything?(Heb. 5:8; John 8:28)
  • Then why is speaking against him not as bad as speaking against the Holy Spirit?(Mt. 12:31,32; Luke 12:10)
  • Then why did Jesus call the "Father...the only true God"?(John 17:3)
  • Then why did he need to be saved?(Heb. 5:7; John 12:27)
  • Then why did he have to be exalted to Leader and Savior?(Acts 5:31)
  • Then how could he be exalted and given a higher name than he had?(Phil. 2:9-11; Heb. 1:2-4)
  • Then why did he have to be given life in himself?(John 5:25,26)
  • Then how could Jesus be tempted by Satan when God cannot be tempted with evil?(James 1:13)
  • Then why did he worship the Father?(John 4:22-23)
  • Then why can he not do anything on his own?(John 5:19; [8.28])
  • Then why would he pray to anybody?(Luke 22:44; John 17:1,2; Heb. 5:7)
  • Then how can he be God's servant?(Acts [3:13,26], 4:26,27,30)
  • Then how could he receive strength from an angel?(Luke 22:43)
  • Then how could he be a mediator between God and man?(1 Tim. 2:5)
  • Then why did Jesus say GOD was "good" in a way that Jesus was not?(Mark 10:18)
  • Then how could he get commanded to do anything?(John 12:49; Deut. 18:18)
  • Then why did Stephen see two separate entities, [the glory of] GOD and Jesus, and not just one God or three persons?(Acts 7:55)
  • Then how could he be seen at GOD's right hand?(Luke 22:69; Acts 7:55; Rom. 8:34)
  • Then how could Jesus be exalted (not to become God Himself, but) to the position of the "right hand OF God"?(Acts 2:33)
  • Then why would he have to receive a revelation from God?(Rev.1:1)
  • Then how could he have a Father?(John 20:17)
  • Then why did he not come in his own name?(John 5:41-44)
  • Then how could he appear before GOD?(Heb. 9:24)
  • Then how could he die? Can God die? Can part of God die?
    (Rom. 5:10; Acts 5:30; 1 Cor. 15:3; Hab.1:12; cf. 1 Tim. 6:16; Num. 23:19; Ps. 90:2; Dan. 6:25-26)
  • Then why is it that God resurrected Jesus?(Acts 2:32)
  • Then why can we see him if "no man has seen God at any time"?(John 1:18)
  • Then why is there not one clear scripture where Jesus is called "God the Son," (equal to those declaring "God, the Father)?

Monday, April 11, 2011

The Trinity Delusion - 3 Articles

Three further articles from the "Trinity Delusion" website.

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Article 1)

Shema: The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob
"The LORD our God, the LORD is One." (Deuteronomy 6:4).

The above verse is the simplest form of the Shema. The Hebrew text literally says, "YHVH our God YHVH is one." While we don't know for certain, and the matter is often disputed, the letters "YHVH" are usually understood by most Christian scholars to have been pronounced as "Yahweh" or "Yahveh." The word "Jehovah" is simply an anglicization of Yahweh just as Peter is an anglicization of the Greek name Petros and Jesus is an anglicization of the Greek name Iesous and Aramaic Yashua.

The Shema is a basic confession of Jews and Christians. It declares that God is one. We must ask ourselves a very important question. If God is "One" then in what way is God "one"? Just how is God "one"? What did God intend for us to understand by these words? And when other passages such as "there is no other but He" are considered, how do such words impact Deuteronomy 6:4? More importantly, what did God intend the ancient Jews to understand by these words? Are we to believe the above confession is intended to convey that God is one "substance," or that God is one trio, as Trinitarians want us to believe? Or did God intend to convey that He is one person? Did God want the Israelites to understand the Gentiles had many gods but the Israelite God in contrast was one substance? Is such a proprosal even reasonable?

The Shema identifies the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. But just who was the God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob? Was Abraham's one and only God just one person? Or was Abraham's one and only God three persons in number? Was Isaac and Jacob's one and only God just one person? Or was Isaac and Jacob's one and only God three persons in number? Just who was Israel's God? Who was Jesus' God? Was Jesus' one and only God a three person being? Or was Jesus' Father alone his one and only God? And if God is a three person being, why does the Bible indicate the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob had a servant-son named Jesus?

The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified His servant-son Jesus (Acts 3:13).

Jesus was an Israelite. He was the King of the Jews. Jesus stressed the vital importance of the Shema:

One of the scribes came and heard them arguing, and recognizing that He had answered them well, asked Him, "What commandment is the foremost of all?" Jesus answered, "The foremost is, 'Hear O Israel. The Lord our God the Lord is One' and 'You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength. The second is this, `You shall love your neighbor as yourself. There is no other commandment greater than these." So the scribe said to Him, "Well said Teacher. You have spoken the truth, for there is one God, and there is no other but He. And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God."" (Mark 12:28-34).

The Jewish scribe refers to this one God as "He." Now we must ask ourselves just who this Jewish scribe had in mind when he used the word "He." The Lord our God the Lord is one "He" and there is no other God but this one "He." Is it reasonable or or is it disingenuous to suggest this Jewish scribe had a three person being in mind and worshiped a Triune God? Or did he have one person in mind? Well we know from Scripture, and Jesus' own words, that the Jews considered their God to be one person - the Father (John 8:41,54). Are we really to believe this learned Jew was referring to a three person God? Let us also not forget that the statement "the Lord our God the Lord is one" is understood in terms of the words "there is no other but He" (see Deut 4:35). And we must also take very careful note of something Jesus says here. Jesus told this man he had answered wisely. Are we to believe Jesus was being sarcastically coy? We know this scribe was referring to someone he perceived to be one person, the Father. How then did Jesus say the Jewish scribe answered wisely if indeed God was actually a three person being? And when Jesus prayed the above words, as Jews do, just who did he himself have in mind? Did he really have a three person God in mind as Trinitarians would have us believe? Or did he simply have his Father in mind? In Jesus' own mind, just who was that one and only God whom they were talking about? One person, or three? Who was Jesus' one and only God?

"I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God" (John 20:17).

Jesus was the son of God. Who is "God" in the term "son of God"? Jesus? A three person being? Or is Jesus the son of the one God who happens to be his Father? Plainly, we are to understand that God is one and Jesus is another and God is Jesus' Father and Jesus is God's son. Does it really make sense to then claim the Son of God is God? Would it make any sense to claim the son of Adam is Adam or the son of David is David or the son of Noah is Noah?

Jesus said he was ascending to his God. This was the God that Jesus and the Jewish scribe were discussing and "there is no other but He." And Jesus clearly identifies his one God as his Father, not a Triune God. His Father was his one and only God. Jesus then goes further and reminds us that his God is our God. There is no difference between Jesus' God and our God. And of course there shouldn't be any difference or we would have two Gods/gods on our hands. If indeed there is only one God then Jesus can't have a different God than his followers. Did Jesus worship and serve a three person God? Or did Jesus worship and serve his father as his one and only God? To reasonable people who are honest with themselves, the answer is obvious. Jesus' God was his Father alone. And Jesus tells us that his one and only God is also our God - the Father.

Ask yourself a very important question and try to be reasonable and honest with yourself. Ask yourself, "Who was Jesus' God?" Now ask yourself if this was the God of Abraham, Issac, and Jacob who sent his servant-son Jesus? Now ask yourself if a Triune God is the same God Jesus served. And if not, ask yourself if this Triune God is another God?

"My God and Your God" - Jesus
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Article 2)

Jesus and a Jewish Scribe

Jesus prayed to his Father and identifies his Father as the only true God:

Father.... this is eternal life, that they may know You, the Only True God and Jesus Christ whom You sent.

The Only True God, Jesus' Father, sent Jesus. In Mark chapter 12, there is an interesting exchange between the Jew Jesus and a Jewish scribe:

And one of the scribes came up and heard them disputing with one another, and seeing that he answered them well, asked him, "Which commandment is the first of all?" Jesus answered, "The first is, "Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one; and you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind, and with all your strength.' The second is this, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' There is no other commandment greater than these." And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that He is one, and there is no other but He; and to love him with all the heart, and with all the understanding, and with all the strength, and to love one's neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices." And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God." And after that no one dared to ask him any question.

Now let us stop for a moment and ask ourselves a very important question. Just who was this Jewish scribe talking about when he said, "HE is one" and "there is no other but HE"? Is it reasonable to suggest this scribe had a three person being in mind? Or is it more reasonable to suggest he had one person in mind?

[The Pharisees]: "We have one Father: God." (John 8:41).

The Jews never perceived God to be anything but one person. It would be ridiculous to claim this Jewish scribe had anyone but one person in mind. Jesus confirms this fact:

Jesus answered, "If I glorify myself, My glory is nothing; it is My Father who glorifies Me, of whom you say, "He is our God" (John 8:54).

Jesus confirms that his Father was the God of the Jews. Jesus too was a Jew. Now notice how Jesus responds to the Jewish scribe.

And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that He is one, and there is no other but He; and to love him with all the heart, and with all the understanding, and with all the strength, and to love one's neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices." And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God."

Jesus wasn't a Trinitarian either. Both the Jewish scribe and Jesus the Jew had the same idea in mind when they said that God is one - Jesus' Father, one person.

Now it gets even more interesting. Notice how the Jesus said, "The Lord our God the Lord is one" and the Jewish scribe responsed to that statement by saying, "you have truly said that He is one, and there is no other but He." Clearly, the Jewish scribe is emphasizing the exclusivity of the God which they have in mind. He says that Jesus had just said "there is no other but He" indicating this is what the Shema is supposed to indicate.

And Jesus confirms this fact by saying he had answered wisely. We find the same idea at Deuteronomy 4:35. We must ask, "there is no other but WHO exactly"? Who did Jesus and this Jewish Scribe have in mind exactly? The honest and reasonable person knows the answer.

Jesus' God was his Father and his Father alone. And it is for this reason that we find Jesus teaching his disciples:

"I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God" (John 20:17).

The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob was one person, Jesus' Father (Acts 3:13). Jesus' God was his Father. Our God is Jesus' Father. Jesus taught us the truth explicitly when he said, "my God and your God." Let us not serve a different God than Jesus.

Do you thus requite the Lord, you foolish and senseless people? Is not he your Father, who created you, who made you and established you?....See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no God besides ME (Deuteronomy 32:6,39).
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Article 3)

Jesus Christ's One and Only God
"The LORD our God, the LORD is One." (Deuteronomy 6:4).

Jesus was a Jew. He was an obedient Jew. When Jesus confessed to God, "the LORD our God, the LORD is one" just who did he have in mind? A three person God? Or his Father alone?

Read the following Scripture verses and see if you can determine if Jesus' one and only God was a one person being or three person being.

He who conquers, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God. Never shall he go out of it, and I will write on him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem which comes down from my God out of heaven, and my own new name." (Rev 3:12).

"My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46).

But I know that you have not the love of God within you. I have come in the name of my Father, and you do not receive me. If another comes in his own name, him you will receive. How can you believe, who receive glory from one another and do not seek the glory that comes from the only God? (John 5:43-44).

The Head of Christ is God. (1 Corinthians 11:3).

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort. (2 Corinthians 1:3).

The God and Father of our Lord Jesus. (2 Corinthians 11:31).

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. (Ephesians 1:3).

The God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory (Ephesians 1:17).

We give thanks to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ (Colossians 1:3).

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ (1 Peter 1:3).

[Jesus] has made us kings and priests to his God and Father. (Revelation 1:6).

Father.... this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent (John 17:3).

Clearly, the one and only God of Jesus Christ was not a three person being but was his Father alone. Jesus' God was His Father and Jesus' Father was His God. We have not the slightest reason to believe any differently. And since Jesus is not a polytheist he taught us that his God is to be our God.

I am ascending to my Father and your Father and my God and your God (John 20:17).

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The above extract of articles taken from:
The Trinity Delusion

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