Concerning 'another deity' and the 'word' - PART 1

Greetings ...

 

I am going to emphasize on two main points made in your last posts.

I believe that these are the two main hurdles that need to be tackled.

 

It appears that you maybe inclined towards a binitarian point of view ...

because in one breath, you agree with me that there is solely ONE GOD who has no 'co-equal' ...
yet you insist that Jesus must be deity ...
hence we end up with 'two deities'!!

 

Now the point I will attempt to make is that this viewpoint cannot be based upon the Hebrew Bible.

That is, maybe from a Western mindset ... this conclusion can be arrived ... maybe also from a Gentile source ...

 

However, from the Scriptures that the OT saints, the patriarchs, the prophets, Jesus of Nazareth, the Apostles, quoted from, studied, and read ...

such a conclusion cannot be arrived ... that is, that there are two deities,
whether co-equal or otherwise!

 

You see, when one reads the Bible, one must read it with an Hebrew mindset.

Even the New Testament, although written in Greek, it was still written with a Hebrew mindset, a Hebrew viewpoint.

 

The theology had NOT changed. The Theology of the Old Testament was the very same in the New Testament.
The ONE GOD had not changed. He was the GOD of Abraham, Isaac, & Jacob; who spoke through Moses, that He was going to raise up a Prophet like Moses from the children of Israel; therefore in the NT, GOD kept His promise and the man Christ Jesus was conceived in the womb of Mary according to the flesh, of the seed of David
[Acts 13.32-33, Rom 1.3];
thus the ONE GOD was now not only the GOD of the fathers, He was also the GOD & Father of the Lord Jesus Christ;

Jesus called his Father,
the only true GOD [John 17.3] & the 'only' GOD [John 5.44].

 

The theology was the same. There was still solely ONE GOD, ONE Deity ... who had brought into existence, the man Messiah Jesus ...
thus ONE GOD, ONE Lord i.e. the ONE GOD and the ONE man whom the ONE GOD had made, alone, Lord & Christ.
YAHWEH GOD still is alone ... the only GOD ... OT Theology had not changed!

Jesus the Messiah, GOD's son ... is alone, Lord & Messiah [1 Cor 8.6]

 

 

Therefore, when one reads the Bible, one must try to read it without any preconceived notions (yeah, I know that is very difficult when one has been schooled beforehand in church) and with the mindset that the OT saints would read it.

 

Norman Snaith makes the following points concerning what we are up against when reading the Bible from 'the orthodox mainstream Christian' point of view ...

 

"Our position is that the reinterpretation of Biblical theology in terms of the ideas of the Greek philosophers has been widespread throughout the centuries and everywhere destructive to the essence of the Christian faith ... Neither Catholic nor Protestant theology is based on Biblical theology. In each case we have a dominion of Christian theology by Greek thought ... We hold that there can be no right (theology) until we have come to a clear view of the distinctive ideas of both Old and New Testaments and their difference from the pagan ideas which have so largely dominated "Christian" thought ..."

Snaith states that the confusing of Greek ideas with the pure Hebrew heritage of Scripture began as early as the 2nd century CE ...

"... it arose from the fact that these scholars [Clement of Alexandria & Origen] were Hellenists first and Christians second. It was furthered by the fact that all until Jerome tended to read the Greek Bible as a Greek book and with Hellenistic eyes. ... The result of this has been that from a very early stage, Christianity itself has tended to suffer from a translation out of the Prophets and into Plato."

(The above cited from N.H. Snaith, The Distinctive Ideas of the Old Testament, London: The Epworth Press, 1944, p.187-188, 161.)

 

Douglas Lockhart goes on to say ...

"Because a Church Council composed of people like Athanasius had said so, Jesus was no longer the Jewish Messiah, the Suffering Servant of Isaiah, the Archetypal man ... he was the alien Jewish God shoe-horned into a physical body and let loose as a refurbished pagan deity of monstrous proportions."

 

(Douglas Lockhart, Jesus the Heretic: Freedom and Bondage in a Religious World, Melbourne, Victoria: Element, p. 131)

 

Hmm! Strong words. But it does sum up what has happened & what we are up against.

However, I contend that the OT Scriptures prophesied that the Messiah would be the Archetypal man, a human being, supernaturally endowed by Almighty GOD, however, nonetheless a human being, a man not deity ... born of a human mother ... and that the NT Scriptures verify that Jesus of Nazareth is indeed that man! Who died, was raised from death, immortalized & exalted by the ONE GOD of the Scriptures, and is now at GOD's right hand; being made Lord & Christ & mediator between the ONE GOD, the ONE DEITY, and mankind.

My point is that Scripturally there cannot be any other deity except the ONE GOD, YAHWEH ... known in the NT as the Father ...

 

 

 

Deity means GOD ...

 

From www.dictionary.com :-

 

1. A god or goddess.

1. The essential nature or condition of being a god; divinity.
2. Deity God. Used with the.

From Webster's Dictionary, 1913 :-

 

http://machaut.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/WEBSTER.sh?WORD=deity

1. The collection of attributes which make up the nature of a god; divinity; godhead; as, the deity of the Supreme Being is seen in his works.

2. A god or goddess; a heathen god.

 

 

Using the above definitions

Let us, begin with the Scriptures ...

 

• (Deu 4:35) Unto thee it was showed, that thou mightest know that YAHWEH he is God; there is none else beside him.
• (Deu 4:39) Know therefore this day, and consider it in thine heart, that YAHWEH he is God in heaven above, and upon the earth beneath: there is none else.
• (Deu 32:12) So YAHWEH alone did lead him, and there was no strange god with him.
• (Deu 32:39) See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: ...
• (1 Sam 2:2) There is none holy as YAHWEH: for there is none beside thee: neither is there any rock like our God.
• (1 Ki 8:60) That all the people of the earth may know that YAHWEH is God, and that there is none else.
• (Psa 83:18) That men may know that thou, whose name alone is YAHWEH, art the most high over all the earth.
• (Isa 37:16) O YAHWEH of hosts, God of Israel, that dwellest between the cherubims, thou art the God, even thou alone, ...
• (Isa 37:20) Now therefore, O YAHWEH our God, save us from his hand, that all the kingdoms of the earth may know that thou art YAHWEH, even thou only.
• (Isa 43:10-12) Ye are my witnesses, saith YAHWEH, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me. 11 I, even I, am YAHWEH; and beside me there is no saviour. 12 I have declared, and have saved, and I have showed, when there was no strange god among you: therefore ye are my witnesses, saith YAHWEH, that I am God.
• (Isa 44:8) ... Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.
• (Isa 44:24) Thus saith YAHWEH, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am YAHWEH that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;
• (Isa 45:5-6) I am YAHWEH, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: ... 6 That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am YAHWEH, and there is none else.
• (Isa 45:18) For thus saith YAHWEH that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am YAHWEH; and there is none else.
• (Isa 46:9) Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me,
• (Mal 2:10) Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? ?

 

Remember, I desire you to look at these scriptures from a Hebrew point of view. To the Hebrews, there was solely ONE GOD, ONE deity! There was no other god, no other deity besides YAHWEH.

 

 

Can you see my point? The Hebrews/Jews simply had no concept of another deity besides (or alongside) YAHWEH.

To them there was simply ONE GOD, ONE deity, whose name alone was YAHWEH, who alone & by Himself had created everything; who alone was GOD in Heaven & earth; who knew no other god/deity besides Him; who neither formed one before Him neither was to form one after Him, etc., etc., ...

 

Therefore, if we Westerners, centuries after ... have derived a concept that there is yet another deity besides YAHWEH, whether co-equal or not, ... we did not derive this concept from the Scriptures.

NO! We have derived it from as Snaith suggested, Hellenistic/pagan sources!!

 

With an Hellenistic mind, it is easy to introduce another deity & read this meaning into the Bible; since, the Greeks had a pantheon of gods/deities i.e. deities who incarnated, deities who came down in the likeness of men, deities who died, deities who were resurrected, etc ...

And history shows that this is exactly what Hellenistic-minded philosopher-turned-christian men did; they introduced such ideas, such concepts; turning the Logos which is simply the Greek word for 'a word, a teaching, a statement, a thought expressed, etc' into a pre-existing person/deity alongside the ONE GOD of the OT; the council of Nicaea took this to the next level i.e. making this 'Jesus who is God the Logos' into a co-equal deity with GOD the Father; and then in the process of time, the Council of Constantinople introduced another deity, God the Holy Spirit; and yet somehow in their Greek minds
made all three, one???

 

Again, I must iterate, that such reasoning could not have been developed by taking the Scriptures literally; this second deity was introduced by reading pagan thoughts, (Neo-)Platonism and other Hellenistic-sourced concepts into Scripture.

 

 

Now, without a doubt the word 'god' in Hebrew, that is, the words elohim & el; are not used solely in regards to Almighty GOD!

These words are also used to denote the ONE GOD's agents, the ONE GOD's representatives,

i.e. angels [Exo 15.11, Ps. 86.8 (cp. 89.6), 97.7] and human judges [Exo 7.1, 21.6, 22.8,9,28; Psa 82] ... however these words are never used in Scripture to denote other deities except to point out that they are indeed false gods, false deities, idols!
Why? Because there is in reality, no other god/deity next to YAHWEH the ONE GOD!

 

Thus, elohim & el; are used to sometimes describe angelic & human beings.

And we know that Jesus is NOT an angelic being. [Heb 1.4-5, 13; 2.5] 

Leaving one class of being ... human.

Using Psalms 82 and the fact that the word 'god/elohim' is sometimes used to denote the ONE GOD's agents;
Jesus informs us and his audience, in what sense, the word 'god/elohim/theos' can be used to denote Christ!

 

Psalms 82 is about human beings, human judges, who although called gods by GOD Himself via His unbroken word; they have not been obedient to their calling ... they have not judged correctly with justice & equity.

 

Therefore, how much more he whom the ONE GOD has sanctified and commissioned to be the Judge of the Living & the Dead;

he whom GOD as foreordained to be the king of GOD's Coming Kingdom, how much more is such a man truly fitting especially after his total obedience to the death of cross; how much more fitting for him to be conferred the title 'god' ...
being truly the ultimate Representative of the Righteous GOD; he who is truly a righteous judge because he judges according to GOD's righteous will ... he is truly 'god' in the way that the men of Psalms 82 were meant to be. GOD's word cannot be broken!

 

This describes therefore the 'godhood' that Jesus indeed possesses ...

• however, in the same way that angels are sometimes called gods and are yet NOT deity
• in the same way that human judges are sometimes called gods and are yet NOT deity
• in like manner, the Messiah is at least twice called god in the NT; however he is NOT deity;
  just as Moses [Exo 4.16, 7.1] who was made god was NOT deity;
  GOD did indeed say he would raise up a Prophet like unto Moses.

Hence, Thomas's confession of John 20.28 ...

 

This testimony is bracketed between

1. (John 20:17) Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. ... and ...

2. (John 20:31) But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

This was the reason behind John's Gospel ... to convince the readers that Jesus of Nazareth was indeed the Messiah, GOD's Son.

Note he did not write esp. in light of v. 28 ... these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is GOD!

John was a monotheistic Jew. Like Jesus (Mark 12:29) and the rest of the GOD-fearing Jews he believed in solely ONE GOD, the ONE GOD of the Sh'ma ... YAHWEH.

He was not writing to convince his audience that the Messiah was indeed Deity; as later Hellenists tried to by reading these foreign ideas into his gospel.

No! John was writing to convince his readers that Jesus of Nazareth was the Messiah as promised in the OT writings.
(Always remember, throughout their exegesis, the Apostles used solely the OT [the Hebrew Bible] ... the NT was not compiled yet)

 

Before Thomas, was the risen Jesus. GOD had indeed raised him from the dead just like Jesus said GOD would!

Seeing the risen Messiah, Thomas therefore said ...
(John 20:28) And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

 

Now Jesus was indeed the Lord, the adoni spoken of in Psalms 110.1 (remember in all of its 195 instances including Psalms 110:1, the word adoni is never used to denote deity ... for ref., see http://focusonthekingdom.org/articles/adonai.htm)

 

What of the phrase, my God?

Well we have seen what GOD did to Moses ...

(Exo 4:16) And he [Aaron] shall be thy [Moses] spokesman unto the people: and he shall be, even he shall be to thee a mouth, and thou shalt be to him God.

(Exo 7:1) And YAHWEH said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.

 

Aaron was the spokesman & prophet of Moses; and in effect, Moses was God both to Aaron & Pharaoh!

Moses was Aaron's God!! Of course this is only correct in the context of the Jewish's law of agency; that is, Moses was Almighty GOD's agent in regards to Aaron & Pharaoh.

 

We have seen Jesus' usage of Psalms 82 where the judges are called gods (both Hebrew words, el & elohim are used). The judges being GOD's agents who were to judge in GOD's stead. Hence they are called elohim just as the judges in Exo. 7.1, 21.6, 22.8,9,28. (Compare 2 Chr 19.5-6)

 

And let us not forget Psalms 45.

(Psa 45) ... My heart is inditing a good matter: I speak of the things which I have made touching the king: my tongue is the pen of a ready writer. 2 Thou art fairer than the children of men: grace is poured into thy lips: therefore God hath blessed thee for ever. 3 Gird thy sword upon thy thigh, O most mighty [Heb. gibbor], with thy glory and thy majesty. ...
6 Thy throne, O God [Heb. elohim], is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre. 7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. 8 All thy garments smell of myrrh, and aloes, and cassia, out of the ivory palaces, whereby they have made thee glad. 9 Kings' daughters were among thy honourable women: upon thy right hand did stand the queen in gold of Ophir. 10 Hearken, O daughter, and consider, and incline thine ear; forget also thine own people, and thy father's house; 11 So shall the king greatly desire thy beauty: for he is thy Lord [Heb. adon]; and worship thou him. 12 And the daughter of Tyre shall be there with a gift; even the rich among the people shall entreat thy favour. ...

This Psalm is about a human king ... a Messianic king ...
The Jews who read this psalm never imagined at anytime that this psalm was speaking of a deity! NO! It is speaking of a great, highly exalted human king. A king who is called God/elohim by the ONE GOD, whom the ONE GOD would anoint with an anointing above all his fellows! A king whom the ONE GOD would establish his throne for ever
(sound familiar ... e.g. 2 Sam 7.16, Isa 9.7).

 

A king who would be exalted and made 'lord' i.e. 'adon' causing the people to worship him even as people did to the kings of Israel in times past (e.g. 1 Chr 29.20, 1 Kin 1.16, 23, 31, 53, etc. Same Hebrew word shachah used for worship translated worship, bow down, do reverence/obeisance, etc). They ought to show him such reverence/worship because this king is both lord [45.11] & god [45.6]. Even the writer of Hebrews quotes this psalm when showing the supremacy of Jesus as
the Lord Messiah denoting that he fulfils this psalm as the Messiah, GOD's Son. [Heb. 1.8-9]

In light of Psalms 45, John 20.28 becomes a Messianic confession. Because of his resurrection, Thomas finally believes that Jesus of Nazareth is indeed the Messiah, GOD's Son. Hence, he is Thomas' lord & god; just as the king spoken of in Psalms 45 is lord & god! ... yet never meaning deity.

There is solely ONE DEITY, YAHWEH ... the Messiah is YAHWEH's human son.

 

Part 2 concerning the word/logos to follow.

Concerning 'another deity' and the 'word'

Greetings Everyone

What follows is a 3-part extract from a series of emails representing a conversation that I had with a inquirer about 'Who Jesus Is'

The main points that I was addressing were ...

1. Whether Jesus was a 'deity' at all? That is, whether he was co-equally Almighty or 'an inferior deity' to the Father? Could be called 'a deity' at all?

2. What is the 'word' that John speaks of in John Chapter 1?

The Appendix addresses texts especially used to prove a 'so-called literal pre-existence of Christ'; esp. Hebrews Chapters 1 and 2

I hope the above 3 posts will be of some edification to someone!

Jesus is no Angel!

Its amazing how people who adhere to Trinitarian or Arian doctrines actually believe that Jesus is the Angel of the Lord, the Angel of YAHWEH in the Old Testament (OT)!

However, Jesus could not be the Angel of the Lord in the OT;
1) Because he is a human being NOT an angelic being
2) And as such he was not even conceived/begotten yet at the time of the OT
So ... Jesus cannot be an/the 'Angel of the Lord'

Now when I speak of an 'angel' I am speaking of the non-human kind i.e. the host of heaven ... angelic beings.
(Hence, I am not speaking of human messengers; since, in scripture the words angel and messenger are the same Hebrew/Greek word. So my context is angelic beings!)


Now if Jesus was an Angel of the Lord he could not qualify to be GOD's Only-Begotten Son!
Why? Because GOD said so, and it appears that the Early Church including the writer of Hebrews were fully aware of this fact and had no concept that Jesus was at anytime, an angelic being!

• (Heb 1:4-7)  Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they. 5 For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? 6 And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him. 7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
  
• (Heb 1:13)  But to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?
  
• (Heb 2:5-9)  For unto the angels hath he not put in subjection the world to come, whereof we speak. 6 But one in a certain place testified, saying, What is man, that thou art mindful of him? or the son of man, that thou visitest him? 7 Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and honour, and didst set him over the works of thy hands: 8 Thou hast put all things in subjection under his feet. For in that he put all in subjection under him, he left nothing that is not put under him. But now we see not yet all things put under him. 9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

The writer of Hebrew is obviously refuting 'angel-christology' which appears was prevalent at his time; he is refuting it using the strongest possible terms.
He is showing that Jesus the Messiah, GOD's Son, was NOT an angelic being at any time!
How much clearer could the writer make his point?
The questions in Heb. 1:5, 13; are NOT rhetorical questions.
The answer therefore is:- TO NONE OF THE ANGELS, DID GOD AT ANYTIME SAY ...
Thus, Jesus the Messiah, GOD's only-begotten human son was NOT and is NOT an angelic being at anytime!


GOD never ever intended the world to come [Heb 2.5] to be put in subjection under any angel. It was always the will of GOD that the world be put under subjection to human beings, not angelic beings hence the terms, 'man and son of man'.
In chapter 2, the writer of Hebrews is equating Jesus, even the risen Jesus, as a bona fide human being, a man, a son of man, and not an angelic being!

Stephen [Acts 7] and Paul [Gal 3.19; cp. Heb 2.2] were fully aware of the OT and they stated that what spoke to the patriarchs were 'angels', angelic beings, plain and simple ... they never equate Jesus as an OT angel ... never!

There is simply no verse which equates the Messiah with the OT Angel of the Lord! No not one.

Therefore, in the OT, via what the Jews call, the law of agency, GOD spoke and acted via/through His angels.

• (Acts 7:30)  And when forty years were expired, there appeared to him in the wilderness of mount Sina an angel of the Lord in a flame of fire in a bush.
  
• (Acts 7:35)  This Moses whom they refused, saying, Who made thee a ruler and a judge? the same did God send to be a ruler and a deliverer by the hand of the angel which appeared to him in the bush.
  
• (Acts 7:38)  This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sina, and with our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give unto us:
  
• (Acts 7:52-53)  Which of the prophets have not your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which showed before of the coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers: 53 Who have received the law by the disposition of angels, and have not kept it.
  
• (Acts 7:55-56)  But he, being full of the Holy Ghost, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God, 56 And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the right hand of God.
  

Stephen mentions the well-known facts that it was 'angels' that appeared and spoke to the patriarchs, GOD working through them.
He finally begins to speak of the Messiah in verse 52ff ... he never says that it was the Messiah who spoke to the patriarchs; rather, Stephen states that it was Stephen's audience who were the betrayers and murderers of the Messiah in NT times! i.e. in their time! He does not depict the Messiah in OT times but rather depicts the Coming of the Messiah in their NT time! Not only did the Messiah come, but his audience were instrumental in his death!

And finally, if GOD had spoken through His Son in OT times via any means, the following verses would not make sense ...

• (Heb 1:1-2)  God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
  (Compare: (1 Pet 1:20)  Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you, )
  

You see!
GOD did NOT speak via His Son in time past (simply because His Son was NOT conceived/begotten yet!)

It wasn't until Jesus came into being ... until he was begotten ... in the fulness of time, in these last days that GOD had an only-begotten Son to speak TO US through!!!

Rather, GOD's Son was foreordained even in OT times. He did not exist in OT times. He did not exist until he was conceived/begotten like every other human being

Jesus was and ever will be a human being
He was never at any time, an angelic being!

Plus to those who believe the Angel of the Lord is Jesus - 
If Jesus is 'the Angel of the Lord'
then who is the Angel of the Lord???
For example ...

(Mat 1:20-21)  But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

(Mat 1:24-25)  Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: 25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

(Mat 2:13)  And when they were departed, behold, the angel of the Lord appeareth to Joseph in a dream, saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and flee into Egypt, and be thou there until I bring thee word: for Herod will seek the young child to destroy him.

(Mat 2:19-20)  But when Herod was dead, behold, an angel of the Lord appeareth in a dream to Joseph in Egypt, 20 Saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and go into the land of Israel: for they are dead which sought the young child's life.

(Mat 28:2-7)  And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat upon it. ... 5 And the angel answered and said unto the women, Fear not ye: for I know that ye seek Jesus, which was crucified. 6 He is not here: for he is risen ... 7 And go quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen from the dead; and, behold, he goeth before you into Galilee; there shall ye see him: lo, I have told you.

(Luke 2:9-11)  And, lo, the angel of the Lord came upon them, and the glory of the Lord shone round about them: and they were sore afraid. 10 And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people. 11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.

Do you see my point?

Now a little history ...

The so-called church fathers were Hellenistic-minded believers who 'lost the art' of reading the Scriptures with a Hebraic mindset.
Justin Martyr was the first to call Jesus, 'the Second God'; and also remember he was 'a philosopher turned "Christian" '!! That is, his mind was steeped in Greek Platonism and philosophy.
Remember Col 2.8!

Justin Martyr as well as the church fathers of his era, tried to marry their Greek philosophy with the Hebrew Scriptures with disastrous results. It was these men who introduced the Platonic notion of  'the immortality of the soul' and with this notion introduced the concept that Jesus the Messiah pre-existed as a personal being known as '[God] the Logos' who was alongside GOD before the foundation of the world.
Like I said, this notion of 'literal pre-existence' of the Messiah was based on their Hellenistic, Platonic philosophy.
Here is an account where Justin Martyr one of the earliest proponent of this notion, was trying to convince Trypho the Jew, of this :-

CHAPTER XLVIII [48] -- BEFORE THE DIVINITY OF CHRIST IS PROVED, HE [TRYPHO] DEMANDS THAT IT BE SETTLED THAT HE IS CHRIST.

Quote
• And Trypho said, "We have heard what you think of these matters. Resume the discourse where you left off, and bring it to an end. For some of it appears to me to be paradoxical, and wholly incapable of proof. For when you say that this Christ existed as God before the ages, then that He submitted to be born and become man, yet that He is not man of man, this [assertion] appears to me to be not merely paradoxical, but also foolish."
  And I replied [Justin] to this, "I know that the statement does appear to be paradoxical, especially to those of your race, who are ever unwilling to understand or to perform the [requirements] of God, but [ready to perform] those of your teachers, as God Himself declares. Now assuredly, Trypho," I continued," [the proof] that this man is the Christ of God does not fail, though I be unable to prove that He existed formerly as Son of the Maker of all things, being God, and was born a man by the Virgin. But since I have certainly proved that this man is the Christ of God, whoever He be, even if I do not prove that He pre-existed, and submitted to be born a man of like passions with us, having a body, according to the Father's will; in this last matter alone is it just to say that I have erred, and not to deny that He is the Christ, though it should appear that He was born man of men, and [nothing more] is proved [than this], that He has become Christ by election. For there are some, my friends," I said, "of our race, who admit that He is Christ, while holding Him to be man of men; with whom I do not agree, nor would I, even though most of those who have [now] the same opinions as myself should say so; since we were enjoined by Christ Himself to put no faith in human doctrines, but in those proclaimed by the blessed prophets and taught by Himself."

(Taken from: DIALOGUE OF TRYPHO, CHAPTER 48 )

So, Justin Martyr could not prove that Jesus pre-existed his birth! Justin also points out (as history proves) that it was the majority position among Christians of that time, that Jesus the Christ of GOD, was born man of men! Thus he did not pre-exist as someone or something else.
Sadly, this philosophical, Platonic notion of 'a literal pre-existence of a Logos-being' gained ground among the Hellenistic Christians, and we have the situation that we have today!!

However, we have no need to depend upon 'the so-called church fathers' for proof ... we simply need to go back to the Scriptures.
Jesus in John 5.46-47 was speaking of Deut 18:15-19; both disciples and believers alike perceived that Jesus of Nazareth was
'That Prophet'
[e.g. John 4.19,29,42-44; 6.14, 7.40, Acts 3.22ff, 7.37, etc]
Neither Jesus nor any of his apostles identified the Messiah as the Angel of the Lord.
And neither in any of the Jewish apocryphal writings do they ever identify the Messiah as the Angel of the Lord.

Thus, in closing ...

(1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

My answer to 7 Assertions

A couple of years ago on another forum, someone who believed in the so-called 'deity of Christ' presented the following assertions. Here are my replies to each assertion ...

Assertion 1:

Jesus Accepted Worship Jesus Himself told Satan that no one should be worshipped and served except God (Matthew 4:10 and Luke 4:8 . Yet… Jesus accepted worship.

MY REPLY:
Jesus was and is 'worshipped' because he is the Lord Messiah, the Son of the Living GOD. The scriptures distinctly depict two types of appropriate worship
1) The worship which belongs to GOD Almighty alone
2) And the worship which is given to kings, prophets and dignitaries.
For example, (1 Chr 29:20) And David said to all the congregation, Now bless YAHWEH your God. And all the congregation blessed YAHWEH God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped YAHWEH, and the king.


The Bible's words for worship, are the Hebrew word Shachah and the Greek word Proskuneo.
They are consistently used in regards to both GOD and men. 
I have already gone into greater detail, therefore I refer you to:
The Worship of Christ

Assertion 2:

Jesus Demonstrated That He was God Jesus had authority over demons and Jesus said His miracles spoke for him (John 10:25). The Old Testament prophesied of Jesus. Jesus also said that no one came to the Father except through Him (John 14:6; 6:45; 8:24) ... Jesus made Himself equal with God

MY REPLY:
Both the authority that Jesus exhibited and the miracles proved the point that Jesus was indeed the Messiah, GOD's agent, GOD's representative, GOD's Anointed One, GOD's Sent One. Therefore, Jesus solely claimed to be the Messiah. He never ever made himself equal to Almighty GOD. All the examples that you used can be explained in that light.
Jesus is GOD's ultimate plenipotentiary and representative.

Assertion 3:

Jesus said for us to "believe also in Me." In John 14:1b. Do you believe in Jesus?

MY REPLY:
Seeing that Jesus is 'THAT PROPHET' spoken of by Moses who was to be 'like unto Moses' [Deut 18:15,18-19],
I personally, do indeed believe in him.
Compare ...

• (John 14:1) Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me.
• (Exo 14:31) And Israel saw that great work which YAHWEH did upon the Egyptians: and the people feared YAHWEH, and believed YAHWEH, and his servant Moses.
• (1 Sam 12:18 ) So Samuel called unto YAHWEH; and YAHWEH sent thunder and rain that day: and all the people greatly feared YAHWEH and Samuel.

Assertion 4:

Jesus Forgave Sins Against God Only God can forgive sins, and Jesus forgave sins against God, then Jesus was showing that He was God.

MY REPLY:
If that indeed proved that Jesus was Almighty GOD, then all the apostles are GOD also!  What do I mean?
The same authority wherewith Jesus forgave sins was given to his apostles.
(John 20:20-23) And when he had so said, he showed unto them his hands and his side. Then were the disciples glad, when they saw the Lord. 21 Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you. 22 And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: 23 Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.

The words 'forgiven/forgive' in Matt chap. 9 and the words 'remit/remitted' in John chap. 20 are the same Greek word aphiemi ...
John 20:23 could easily read ... Whose soever sins ye forgive, they are forgiven unto them; ...

The apostles were to forgive/remit sins even as Jesus their Master had done so!!
Yet they are not GOD are they???

Let's look again at this event ...
[Please note: The word used for 'power' is the Greek word exousia which means AUTHORITY!]

Quote:

(Mat 9:4-8 ) And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts? 5 For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk? 6 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power/AUTHORITY on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house. 7 And he arose, and departed to his house. 8 But when the multitude saw it, they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power/AUTHORITY unto men. (Mark 2:12) And immediately he arose, took up the bed, and went forth before them all; insomuch that they were all amazed, and glorified God, saying, We never saw it on this fashion. (Luke 5:25-26) And immediately he rose up before them, and took up that whereon he lay, and departed to his own house, glorifying God. 26 And they were all amazed, and they glorified God, and were filled with fear, saying, We have seen strange things to day.

Get it! The man's sins were forgiven via the authority that Almighty GOD had given to Jesus, the Son of man ... in light of this, the witnesses of this great event glorified GOD who gave such authority to men.

Thank GOD for common people! [Mark 12:37] Who are not bound up by Greek Hellenistic philosophy and church councils' teachings ... common people ... who could clearly see that this man before them, the man Jesus of Nazareth [Acts 2:22] was not GOD Almighty but rather GOD's authorized, appointed agent ... a man authorized and appointed to forgive sins on behalf of GOD Himself ... a man who did all things by the power of GOD, because it was GOD the Father who did the works!

Whose report will we believe? Those who believed on him [Matt 9:8, Acts 2:22]
or the so-called church fathers who taught that Jesus is Almighty GOD?
The choice is ours!!

Assertion 5:

Jesus did one of two things: a) Showed He was God by proving He had the power, b) Deliberately misled them to believe that He was God when He was not.

MY REPLY:
Jesus did NEITHER.
What he did  or rather what GOD did through him,
was to show that His Son was authorized and appointed by Him to forgive sins and heal in His name.
As Jesus himself said ....

• (John 5:19) Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
• (John 8:28 ) Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
• (John 14:10-11) Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. 11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.

Jesus had NO POWER OF HIMSELF. GOD worked through Jesus. GOD the Father did all the works. Jesus DID NOTHING OF HIMSELF.
GOD via the works showed that Jesus was the Messiah and His Son.

Jesus misled no one. He taught those who had an ear to hear, that he was indeed, the Messiah, the Son of the Living GOD, and as such, they were to put their trust in him, because everything he said and did, was OF GOD ALMIGHTY, his Father and not of himself!

Quote:

(John 12:48-50) He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day. 49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. 50 And I know that his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.

Assertion 6:

However, note that Jesus said "But that you may know that the Son of Man has power on earth to forgive sins". So Jesus said it was He who had the power, and he was not just announcing that the Father forgave.

MY REPLY:
Jesus 'HAD' authority/power to forgive sins because it was GIVEN him from Almighty GOD.
[Please note: The word used for 'power' is the Greek word exousia which means AUTHORITY!]

Quote:

(Mat 9:4-8 ) And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts? 5 For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk? 6 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power/AUTHORITY on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house. 7 And he arose, and departed to his house. 8 But when the multitude saw it, they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power/AUTHORITY unto men.

Assertion 7:

The Rest of the New Testament The gospels and the rest of the New Testament shows that Jesus' followers were taught that Jesus was God. a) Jesus and the Father have the same nature (Philippians 2:5) b) Both are rightfully worshipped (Hebrews 1:6) c) Both rightfully called God (John 1:1; Heb 1:8,9) d) Both are prayed to (Acts 7:7:59-60) e) Everything in the world was created through Christ (John 1:3, 10, Colossians 1:16) f) Everything is sustained through Christ (Col 1:17) g) The fullness of deity is in Jesus (Colossians 1:19). h) Jesus is called God in 2 Cor. 11:3 and Titus 2:13 i) Worshipped in Heaven in Revelation 5:8-9; 22:20 j) Prayed to Christ Acts 7:59

MY REPLY:
Rather, the gospels and the rest of the New Testament shows that Jesus' followers were taught ...
that Jesus was indeed the Messiah, the Son of the Living GOD, GOD's appointed agent and plenipotentiary

1. The Greek text of Philippians 2:6 is more correctly rendered that Jesus did not grasp after equality with GOD
   Unlike Adam [Gen 3:5]. Where Adam failed, Jesus succeeded. Where Adam sought to exalt himself, Jesus humbled himself.
   As followers of Christ, we ought to have the same mind.
   The expression 'form of GOD' is equivalent to 'image of GOD' [Gen 1:27]; i.e. Jesus the second man, the second Adam, being a man, he was indeed the ultimate 'image of GOD', the ultimate 'man'; he was the image that GOD had intended all men to be ... Jesus proved this by being in total submission to Almighty GOD, hence all his followers now need to be conformed to Jesus' image. [Rom 8:29]
   
2. Both are rightfully worshipped (Hebrews 1:6)
   Yes. GOD as GOD ALMIGHTY! Jesus as the King Messiah, the man whom Almighty GOD made both Christ and Lord of all; even angels therefore, have been made subject to him. [Acts 2:36, 10:36; 1 Pet 3:22, 1 Cor 15:27-28; Heb 2:5-9]
   
3. John 1:1 is speaking about the word of God
   Moses is also called 'God/elohim'. [Exo 7:1] So were the OT judges [Exo 21:6, 22:8-9] So your point is?
   
4. Stephen is speaking to Jesus who he sees.
   Stephen is not praying to him. He is invoking and calling upon Jesus whilst beholding him. There is a difference!.
   
   Solely GOD the Father is prayed to throughout the scriptures, both OT & NT.
   
5. Everything in the world was created by GOD Almighty.
   The new creation, the new heavens and earth are created by GOD through Christ.
   John 1:3 is about GOD's spoken word (cp. Psalms 33:6,9)
   
   John 1:10 is talking about Jesus, the Son of the Creator.
   The Scriptures recognized solely ONE Creator ... this ONE Creator is YAHWEH, the GOD of Abraham, Isaac & Jacob;
   the GOD & Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. [Mal 2:10]; YAHWEH created all things alone! [Isa 44:24]
   What the biased KJV translators did was to translate the Greek word ’dia’ as ‘by’ in v.10. They did the same thing in Col 1:16, Eph 3:9, and Heb 1:2; hence to foist their doctrine/leaven that a ‘God the Son’ made all things. However this is not what the Scriptures teach.
   
   The Greek word ’dia’ around 88 times is translated ‘through’.
   Hence, John 1:10 need not to be translated ‘by’ but rather THROUGH! Therefore, GOD Almighty, the Father, made all things with His Son in mind ... with His Son in view. (In like manner, Col 1.16 is about the new creation to come. GOD also is creating this new creation with His Son in view!)
   
   So, concerning John 1.10 ... Hence the Son was in the world, and the world was made actually by GOD the Father THROUGH the Son [i.e. in view of the Son], and the world knew the Son not.
   This verse is definitely NOT saying that Jesus the Messiah made all things!
    
   The Scriptures teach no such thing. Both Christ [Mark 10:6, 13:19] and the apostles [Acts 4:24, 14:15, 17:24 cp. Matt 11:25, Luke 10:24] taught that GOD, the Father, namely YAHWEH; is the sole Creator of all things. In fact, in NO Jewish writings (I am open to be corrected) will you find any concept that the Messiah is the Creator or Maker of all things. In fact, let me quote from the Talmud that also gives the gist of what I am saying ...

   Babylonian Talmud, Sanhedrin 98b wrote:

   ”The World was not Created but only for the Messiah”

6. Everything is sustained through Christ (Col 1:17)
   Yep! That is his appointed position by Almighty GOD. However, it is GOD who sustains all things through Christ.
   
7. Yep! GOD's fullness dwells in the man Christ Jesus.
   He may be 'full of GOD' however he is not GOD. Rather, Jesus is GOD's human temple.
   Also, Paul prayed that ... (Eph 3:19) And to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God.
   
8. Jesus is called God in 2 Cor. 11:3 and Titus 2:13
   He is???
   
   (2 Cor 11:3) But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtlety, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ.
   Bit puzzled by this one.
   
   However, the Greek text of Titus 2:13 reads rather:
   (Titus 2:13) Looking for that blessed hope, and the appearing of the glory of the great God AND our Saviour Jesus Christ;
   Compare (Mat 16:27) For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
   (Luke 9:26) For whosoever shall be ashamed of me and of my words, of him shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he shall come in his own glory, and in his Father's, and of the holy angels.
   See also Mark 8:38
   
9. Revelation 5:8-9 ... Yep! Christ is due worship and honor as the Lamb of Almighty GOD.
   (Rev 5:9) And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;
   
10. Check any bible. The word 'God' in Acts 7:59 is in italics i.e. it is NOT in the Greek text
    Acts 7:59 actually reads ... And they stoned Stephen, calling upon and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.

 

The Worship of Christ

A couple of years ago, I was asked about the 'worship' of Christ on another forum. This was my reply ...

Greetings ...,
allow me to elaborate on 'worship' and its distinctions.

Theologians call it, 'religious worship' (which is due to GOD alone)
and 'civil worship' (which is due to men such as dignitaries and kings).
The Scriptures describe both kinds of 'worship'.

The Hebrew word for worship, shachah - Strong's 7812, is used more often in the OT (the Hebrew Bible), in regards to men, than it is used in regards to Almighty GOD!! The KJV/Bible translators obscured this fact by translating this word as
bow down, fall down, make obeisance, do obeisance, do reverence, etc.
However, the main thing to notice, is that this kind of 'worship' does not violate the commandments which speak of the worship which is due to Almighty GOD alone. Why? Because when men are shachah-worshipped in the OT, they are not being worshipped AS Almighty GOD! They are shachah-worshipped for who they are and for what (or who) they represent. Hence men of GOD, patriarchs, prophets and kings, (even parents and siblings), were given due worship/reverence accordingly ... it is obvious, however, that these men were not being shachah-worshipped AS Almighty GOD!

The kings of Israel/Judah of the OT, were the anointed ones of GOD, GOD's appointed kings; they were royalty, they were therefore, given due worship/obeisance. This 'kind of (civil) worship' is still witnessed today in countries which still have royal families. From what I gathered, the English call it 'curtsy'; and they also refer to their 'mayor' as 'the Right Worshipful'!
In contrast, in biblical times, it was the norm to fall flat on one's face, when greeting a dignitary or king.

The NT equivalent word for worship is proskuneo - Strong's 4352. When Jesus gave the parable about forgiveness concerning a certain king [Matt 18:23], he described how the servant proskuneo-worshipped the king [v. 26]; whilst in contrast, the servant's fellowservant simply besought him! [v. 29] The difference being, the servant was no king! Even in the regeneration when the saints are glorified, the enemies of the saints will have to proskuneo-worship before their feet. [Rev 3:9] The implications should be clear!

The OT, therefore, gives us the necessary backdrop of the NT. When we search the Scriptures (as commanded by our Master Rabbi/Teacher Jesus), we can now see why Jesus of Nazareth was proskuneo-worshipped. Just like the patriarchs, prophets, dignitaries and kings of old, Jesus of Nazareth was given due worship/reverence.
Why? Because Jesus of Nazareth is

• the promised Prophet par excellence of Deut 18:15,18-19;
  
• the promised King of Psalms 2; the promised
  'Son of GOD/David' of 2 Sam 7:14, 1 Chron. 17:11-14;
  
• the promised David's lord of Psalms 110:1.
  

When recognized as such, he was given due worship/obeisance/shachah/proskuneo as shown throughout the NT.

Some recognized Jesus as the promised 'Son of GOD/David', the King of Israel, the Messiah.
Please note: these terms are synonymous. 'Son of GOD' is equivalent to King of Israel. In biblical times, to claim to be the Son of GOD was to claim to be the King of Israel, the King of the Jews. Hence Nathaniel's statement: (John 1:49) Nathanael answered and saith unto him, Rabbi, thou art the Son of God; thou art the King of Israel.
Solomon was the first king to be conferred the title Son of GOD or GOD's Son (See 1 Chron 22:6-11, 28:5-7).
Son of GOD, therefore, is actually a royal title! - Let me use a quote from Colin Brown,

Colin Brown wrote:

the title "Son of God" is not in itself a designation of personal deity or an expression of metaphysical distinctions within the Godhead. Indeed to be "Son of God" one has to be a being who is not God! It is a designation for a creature indicating a special relationship with God. In particular, it denotes God’s representative, God’s vice-regent. It is a designation of kingship, identifying the king as God’s son.

Being recognized as 'the Son of GOD',
Jesus was proskuneo-worshipped as such
e.g. Matt 14:33, John 9:35-38, etc.
Whilst others, simply recognized him as a mighty Prophet of GOD, and proskuneo-worshipped him as such
e.g. Matt 8:2, 9:18, etc.
(Even the Romans mockingly proskuneo-worshipped him as the 'King of the Jews' - Mark 15:18-19)

By searching the OT, we see that the NT examples are nothing out of the ordinary. The difference being that Jesus of Nazareth is 'the Promised One, the Promised Messiah, the Promised King'.
The Magi from the east came from afar, therefore, to give due worship/reverence and pay homage to the Promised King of Israel hence the Magi's request (Matthew 2:2) Saying, Where is he that is born King of the Jews? for we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him; and Herod's reply (Matthew 2:8) And he sent them to Bethlehem, and said, Go and search diligently for the young child; and when ye have found him, bring me word again, that I may come and worship him also.

The Magi never came to worship a deity or a 'god-man'. NO! They came to pay homage and give due reverence/worship [Matt 2:11] to GOD's Son, GOD's Anointed One, GOD's Chosen King.
(compare in contrast, Matt 21:37-39, Mark 12:6-8, Luke 20:13-15)

Throughout the NT we see other examples of this reverence. Jesus died because he proclaimed that he was the Messiah, the King of Israel, the promised Son of GOD of Psalms 2. However, to quote

Colin Brown wrote:

The designation of Jesus as "Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead" (Rom. 1:4) is a reaffirmation of that Son-Kingship with divine authority, insofar as by the resurrection the Spirit has overturned the negative verdict of the Sanhedrin in condemning Jesus to death as a blasphemer who sought to lead Israel astray.

Like I said earlier, the OT gives us the necessary backdrop for the NT. So here are some more examples of this kind of worship (The word(s) which correspond to shachah are in red) :-

• (Genesis 23:7) And Abraham stood up, and bowed himself to the people of the land, even to the children of Heth.
  
• (Genesis 23:12) And Abraham bowed down himself before the people of the land.
  
• {towards Esau} (Genesis 33:3) And he passed over before them, and bowed himself to the ground seven times, until he came near to his brother.
  
• (Genesis 33:6-7) Then the handmaidens came near, they and their children, and they bowed themselves. 7 And Leah also with her children came near, and bowed themselves: and after came Joseph near and Rachel, and they bowed themselves.
  
• {towards Joseph} (Genesis 42:6) And Joseph was the governor over the land, and he it was that sold to all the people of the land: and Joseph's brethren came, and bowed down themselves before him with their faces to the earth.
  
• (Genesis 43:26) And when Joseph came home, they brought him the present which was in their hand into the house, and bowed themselves to him to the earth.
  
• (Genesis 43:28 ) And they answered, Thy servant our father is in good health, he is yet alive. And they bowed down their heads, and made obeisance.
  
• {towards Moses} (Exodus 11:8 ) And all these thy servants shall come down unto me, and bow down themselves unto me, saying, Get thee out, and all the people that follow thee: and after that I will go out. And he went out from Pharaoh in a great anger.
  
• {towards Jethro} (Exodus 18:7) And Moses went out to meet his father in law, and did obeisance, and kissed him; ...
  
• (1 Samuel 24:8 ) David also arose afterward, and went out of the cave, and cried after Saul, saying, My lord the king. And when Saul looked behind him, David stooped with his face to the earth, and bowed himself.
  
• {towards David} (1 Samuel 25:41) And she arose, and bowed herself on her face to the earth, and said, Behold, let thine handmaid be a servant to wash the feet of the servants of my lord.
  
• (2 Samuel 9:6) Now when Mephibosheth, the son of Jonathan, the son of Saul, was come unto David, he fell on his face, and did reverence. And David said, Mephibosheth. And he answered, Behold thy servant!
  
• (2 Samuel 9:8 ) And he bowed himself, and said, What is thy servant, that thou shouldest look upon such a dead dog as I am?
  
• (2 Samuel 14:4) And when the woman of Tekoah spake to the king, she fell on her face to the ground, and did obeisance, and said, Help, O king.
  
• (2 Samuel 14:22) And Joab fell to the ground on his face, and bowed himself, and thanked the king: ...
  
• (2 Samuel 14:33) So Joab came to the king, and told him: and when he had called for Absalom, he came to the king, and bowed himself on his face to the ground before the king: and the king kissed Absalom.
  
• {towards Absalom} (2 Samuel 15:5) And it was so, that when any man came nigh to him to do him obeisance, he put forth his hand, and took him, and kissed him.
  
• {towards King David} (2 Samuel 18:28 ) And Ahimaaz called, and said unto the king, All is well. And he fell down to the earth upon his face before the king, and said, Blessed be YAHWEH thy God, which hath delivered up the men that lifted up their hand against my lord the king.
  
• (2 Samuel 24:20) And Araunah looked, and saw the king and his servants coming on toward him: and Araunah went out, and bowed himself before the king on his face upon the ground.
  
• (1 Kings 1:16) And Bathsheba bowed, and did obeisance unto the king. And the king said, What wouldest thou?
  
• (1 Kings 1:23) And they told the king, saying, Behold Nathan the prophet. And when he was come in before the king, he bowed himself before the king with his face to the ground.
  
• (1 Kings 1:31) Then Bathsheba bowed with her face to the earth, and did reverence to the king, and said, Let my lord king David live for ever.
  
• (1 Kings 1:53) So king Solomon sent, and they brought him down from the altar. And he came and bowed himself to king Solomon: and Solomon said unto him, Go to thine house.
  
• (1 Kings 2:19) Bathsheba therefore went unto king Solomon, to speak unto him for Adonijah. And the king rose up to meet her, and bowed himself unto her, and sat down on his throne, and caused a seat to be set for the king's mother; and she sat on his right hand.
  
• {towards Elisha} (2 Kings 2:15) And when the sons of the prophets which were to view at Jericho saw him, they said, The spirit of Elijah doth rest on Elisha. And they came to meet him, and bowed themselves to the ground before him.
  
• (2 Kings 4:37) Then she went in, and fell at his feet, and bowed herself to the ground, and took up her son, and went out.
  
• (1 Chronicles 21:21) And as David came to Ornan, Ornan looked and saw David, and went out of the threshingfloor, and bowed himself to David with his face to the ground.
  

And the list goes on ...

Therefore in conclusion, let us remember, there is 'worship' which is due unto solely Almighty GOD [e.g. Exo 20:5, Deut 5:19,
Matt 4:10, John 4:20-24, Rev 4:10-11, 19:10, 22:9, etc] and there is 'worship' which is due unto the King Messiah
[e.g. Matt 14:33, 20:20, 28:9, etc].
Compare the worship/shachah of YAHWEH & King David i.e.
(1 Chronicles 29:20) And David said to all the congregation, Now bless YAHWEH your God. And all the congregation blessed YAHWEH God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped YAHWEH, and the king.
...